Basic Clinical Laboratory Techniques 6th Edition by Barbara H. Estridge – Test Bank

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Lesson 5-1: Introduction to Urinalysis

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. The inner portion of an organ is called the cortex.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Bowman’s capsule is the portion of the nephron that receives the glomerular filtrate.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The medulla is the central or inner portion of an organ.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The tube carrying urine from the urinary bladder to the outside is the ureter.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Untreated strep A infections will have no effect on kidney health.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The glomeruli produce approximately 180 liters of filtrate daily in a healthy adult.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Some solutes found in normal urine are vitamins, uric acid, bile pigments, and calcium.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell synthesis.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Urea is the solute in highest concentration in the urine of a healthy adult.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Urinary tract infections most commonly occur in the ureter and can be caused by bacteria, yeasts, or protozoan parasites.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The tube carrying urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder is the:
a. urethra c. ureter
b. renal tubule d. loop of Henle

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The concave region of the kidney where lymphatic vessels, blood vessels, and nerves enter or exit is the:
a. cortex c. renal hilus
b. renal pelvis d. medulla

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. An organ for the temporary storage of urine is the:
a. kidney c. ureter
b. bladder d. urethra

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The canal through which urine is carried from the urinary bladder to the outside is the:
a. urethra c. ureter
b. bladder d. renal tubule

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Each kidney has approximately how many nephrons?
a. 1 c. 1,000
b. 1,000,000 d. 10,000

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Each nephron is composed of:
a. a glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
b. renal hilus and renal pelvis
c. renal cortex and medulla
d. a glomerulus and its associated medulla
e. a glomerulus and its associated renal tubule

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The major functions of the kidney include:
a. regulation of acid-base balance
b. regulation of body temperature
c. regulation of blood volume and composition
d. production of the majority of hormones in the body

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. In health, the glomerular filtrate can contain:
a. white blood cells d. protein molecules
b. urea e. all of the above
c. red blood cells  

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of the hormones that affect renal function?
a. Calcitonin increases calcium reabsorption and works with vitamin D3.
b. Antidiuretic hormone regulates water reabsorption by the kidneys.
c. Atrial natriuretic peptide is produced by the kidney.
d. Parathyroid hormone regulates electrolytes.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following hormones is (are) produced by the kidneys?
a. erythropoietin c. active vitamin D3
b. renin d. all of the above

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Inflammation of the renal pelvis is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  pyelitis

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Bowman’s capsule is the portion of the nephron that receives the glomerular ____________________.

 

ANS:  filtrate

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A substance that is toxic or destructive to kidney cells is ____________________.

 

ANS:  nephrotoxic

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The organ in which urine is formed is called the ____________________.

 

ANS:  kidney

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A variety of waste products are eliminated from the body through the formation and excretion of ____________________.

 

ANS:  urine

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The functional unit of the kidneys is the ____________________.

 

ANS:  nephron

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The two major treatments for kidney failure are kidney transplant and ____________________.

 

ANS:  dialysis

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The type of dialysis that gives the patient more freedom and independence is ____________________.

 

ANS:

peritoneal

peritoneal dialysis

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Antidiuretic hormone is also known as ____________________.

 

ANS:  vasopressin

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A type of glomerulonephritis that can occur after an untreated or incompletely treated strep A infection is known as ____________________.

 

ANS:

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

post-streptococcal GN

poststreptococcal GN

poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. peritoneal dialysis g. dialyzer
b. aldosterone h. Bowman’s capsule
c. nephron i. renin
d. 160–180 mg/dL j. hemodialysis
e. diuresis k. 120–140 mg/dL
f. dialysate l. erythropoietin

 

 

  1. stimulates RBC production in the bone marrow

 

  1. renal threshold of glucose

 

  1. blood from the patient’s vein is slowly passed through a dialyzer

 

  1. artificial kidney

 

  1. patient’s abdomen is filled with dialysate

 

  1. indirectly influences blood pressure

 

  1. structural and functional unit of the kidney

 

  1. receives the glomerular filtrate

 

  1. output of an abnormally large volume of urine

 

  1. in kidney dialysis, a solution used to draw waste products and excess fluid from the body

 

  1. ANS:  L                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

 

Lesson 5-2: Urine Specimen Collection and Processing

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Nocturia is the absence of urine production.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Polyuria is the excessive production of urine.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A common type of urine specimen submitted for laboratory analysis is the random urine.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. For clean-catch specimens the urine container must be sterile.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Quantitative urine tests require a 24-hour urine specimen.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A urine specimen must be labeled on the lid, not on the container.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A random urine specimen is required when the specimen is to be cultured for microorganisms.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. An ammonialike odor in urine is usually caused by bacteria.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. It is routine urinalysis policy to store urine specimens in the dark at 4°C–6°C for 24 hours to avoid deterioration of the specimen.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Since urine specimens present no biological hazards, Standard Precautions are not required in handling and testing.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. When disposing of urine, protective facewear should be worn to protect the face from splashes.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. When urine is to be cultured for bacteria, the specimen required is:
a. random d. preserved
b. clean-catch e. 24-hour
c. first morning  

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Failure of kidney function and suppression of urine production is:
a. polyuria d. nocturia
b. oliguria e. diuresis
c. anuria  

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The reference range for a 24-hour urine volume for a newborn is:
a. 20–350 mL c. 750–2,000 mL
b. 300–600 mL d. none of the above

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of a 24-hour urine specimen?
a. It is used primarily for qualitative testing.
b. It is used to assess kidney function.
c. It is used for culturing bacteria.
d. It must not contain a preservative.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of a urine quality assessment program?
a. The lid of the container should be labeled with the patient ID.
b. Specimens must be tested within an hour of collection or be refrigerated.
c. Specimens can be left on the counter for 2–4 hours before testing.
d. Most patients know how to properly collect a specimen and need no instruction.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of a clean-catch urine collection?
a. The patient uses one towelette for cleansing.
b. The first portion of the urine stream is collected.
c. It cannot be used for bacterial culture.
d. The urine container must be labeled with the patient’s name and the date and time of collection.

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If a urine specimen is to be cultured for bacteria:
a. the specimen must be the first morning specimen
b. the culture must be set up before the routine urinalysis is done
c. the container need not be sterile
d. the urine can be left on the lab bench 2–4 hours before culture
e. none of the above

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of urines collected for drug screening?
a. A credit card can be used for identification.
b. The urine is collected in the usual urine container.
c. The patient must sign a consent form.
d. The specimen is placed with other reference laboratory samples for pickup.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is usually NOT measured in a 24-hour urine?
a. protein c. creatinine
b. bacteria d. calcium

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If a urine cannot be tested within 1 hour of the collection time, it should be:
a. refrigerated overnight c. refrigerated at 4°F–6°F for up to 4 hours
b. frozen to preserve it d. discarded

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following specimens should NOT be a midstream specimen?
a. random c. clean-catch
b. 24-hour d. timed

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. A midstream urine sample collected after the urethral opening and surrounding tissues have been cleansed is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

clean-catch urine

clean-catch

clean catch

clean catch urine

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A urine sample collected at any time, without regard to diet or time of day is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:

random urine specimen

random urine

random specimen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Quantitative urine tests require a(n) ____________________-hr urine specimen.

 

ANS:

24

twenty-four

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When urine specimens cannot be refrigerated or must be transported, deterioration can be avoided by the addition of ____________________.

 

ANS:

preservative

fixative

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The absence of urine production is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  anuria

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Excessive production of urine is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  polyuria

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The urine specimen that is normally more concentrated and has an acid pH is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

first morning specimen

first morning urine

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. An unpleasant ammonia-like odor in urine is usually caused by urea being broken down by ____________________.

 

ANS:  bacteria

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Urines collected to test for protein, barbiturates, or drugs of abuse can be preserved by ____________________.

 

ANS:  refrigeration

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Sinks used for discarding urine specimens should be flushed with water and ____________________.

 

ANS:

appropriate laboratory disinfectant

laboratory disinfectant

disinfectant

surface disinfectant

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. urine for drug screen f. oliguria
b. quality assessment g. 24-hr urine specimen
c. 20–350 mL h. 1,500 mL average
d. biohazard i. MSDS
e. surface disinfectant j. clean-catch urine

 

 

  1. required for quantitative tests

 

  1. splashes and aerosols

 

  1. urine preservative

 

  1. middle portion of the urine flow

 

  1. temperature recorded immediately after collection

 

  1. urine spills

 

  1. reference range for newborn daily urine volume

 

  1. reference range for adult daily urine volume

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

 

 

Lesson 5-3: Physical Examination of Urine

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Normal urine is always pale yellow.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Urochrome is the yellow pigment that gives urine its color.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Turbid means having a cloudy appearance.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Urine color is not affected by diet or physical activity.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Bilirubin can be present in the urine of hepatitis patients.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Cloudy urine can be due to amorphous urates or phosphates.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Four common causes of turbid urine are WBCs, RBCs, epithelial cells, and bacteria.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. If a urine cannot be examined within 1 hour, it can be refrigerated at 4°F for up to 24 hours.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Normal, recently voided urine has a characteristic unpleasant odor.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Glucosuria is the same as glycosuria.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Chemical analysis by reagent strip is a CLIA-waived test.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A positive nitrate test is an indication of a possible urinary tract infection.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Normal urine should test as slightly positive for glucose on a reagent strip.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The “blood” reagent pad reacts only with intact red blood cells.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The urine reagent strip is specific for the sugar glucose.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Granular leukocytes, such as neutrophils, can be detected by the esterase substrate in the leukocyte pad.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. In the physical examination of urine, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
a. the color is recorded c. transparency is noted
b. the pH is measured d. specific gravity is measured

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The abnormal color of urine seen most frequently is:
a. amber c. red or red-brown
b. green-brown d. black

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The presence of RBCs, hemoglobin, or myoglobin in urine causes the color to be:
a. yellow-orange c. red or red-brown
b. green-brown d. wine red

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of the physical characteristics of urine?
a. The cause of turbidity usually cannot be determined.
b. Abnormalities in a clear urine are usually not detected until the chemical exam.
c. Porphyrins cause the urine to be black.
d. The specific gravity is a measure of color intensity.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The odor of urine from a patient with uncontrolled diabetes is described as fruity, due to:
a. phenylketonuria c. breakdown products of urea
b. ammonia produced by bacteria d. the presence of ketones

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Urine specific gravity:
a. is unaffected by fluid intake c. has a reference range of 1.005–1.030
b. is usually highest in the evening d. does not vary from day to day

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Concerning safety when processing urine specimens, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
a. The creation of splashes and aerosols must be avoided.
b. Urinometers do not need to be disinfected.
c. Refractometers are wiped with 10% chlorine bleach.
d. Hepatitis virus can be present in urine samples.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. When tested with a urine reagent strip, a normal urine has a:
a. trace of glucose c. positive nitrite
b. positive esterase reaction d. negative or trace protein

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true concerning positive or abnormal results on the reagent strip EXCEPT:
a. They are confirmed according to laboratory policy.
b. They are confirmed using confirmatory tests.
c. These specimens must be sent to a reference laboratory
d. Some positive reactions, such as nitrite, can be confirmed by microscopic examination.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT normally required when working with routine urines?
a. face protection c. fume or safety hood
b. gloves d. laboratory coat

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is acceptable policy for urine reagent strip quality assessment?
a. Check the expiration date on the container daily or at every use.
b. Urine reagent strips should be tested weekly with urine controls.
c. Strips should be stored away from sources of moisture.
d. Store reagent strips in the original container.
e. All of the above (a–d) are true.
f. Only (a), (c), and (d) are acceptable.

 

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is the correct procedure to follow when performing chemical examination of urine by reagent strip?
a. Test the specimen before it is centrifuged.
b. Test only the centrifuged specimen.
c. The specimen should be at 4°C for testing.
d. The results can be read at any time.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Upon standing, a urine containing melanin will turn ____________________.

 

ANS:

dark

black

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Beets in the diet can cause the urine to be ____________________.

 

ANS:  red

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Turbidity or cloudiness in a freshly voided urine can be an indication of ____________________.

 

ANS:

disease

infection

mucus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Urine that has a milky, opalescent appearance could contain ____________________.

 

ANS:

fats

lipids

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. If a urine cannot be examined within 1 hour of collection, it can be refrigerated at 4°C for up to ____________________ hours.

 

ANS:

four

4

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Ketones are the product of ____________________ metabolism.

 

ANS:

fat

lipid

fatty acids

fatty acid

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. In an unrefrigerated urine containing bacteria, urea will be broken down to form ____________________.

 

ANS:  ammonia

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Before being analyzed, refrigerated urines should be allowed to reach ____________________ temperature.

 

ANS:

room

ambient

21°C–25°C

21°C to 25°C

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A degradation product of bilirubin that can be detected on the urine reagent strip is ______________________.

 

ANS:  urobilinogen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. If white blood cells are present in the urine, the leukocyte pad on the reagent strip should be _____________________.

 

ANS:

positive

purple

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. turbid f. urochrome
b. alkaline urine g. opalescent
c. bilirubin h. positive nitrite test
d. Ictotest i. refractometer
e. positive protein sulfosalicylic acid test j. hematuria

 

 

  1. instrument for measuring the refractive index of a substance

 

  1. having a cloudy appearance

 

  1. white precipitate

 

  1. presence of blood in urine

 

  1. having a milky iridescence

 

  1. decomposed by direct light

 

  1. yellow pigment that gives urine its color

 

  1. pH above 7.0

 

  1. Escherichia coli

 

  1. confirmatory test for bilirubin

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

 

 

Lesson 5-4: Chemical Examination of Urine

 

TRUE/FALSE

 

  1. Bilirubin is a product formed in the liver from the breakdown of hemoglobin.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Glucosuria is the same as glycosuria.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Microalbumin is a smaller molecule of albumin.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Chemical analysis by reagent strip is a CLIA-waived procedure.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. A positive nitrite test is an indication of a possible bacterial urinary tract infection.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Normal urine should test as slightly positive for glucose on a reagent strip.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The reagent strip is specific for glucose because it contains the enzymes glucose oxidase and peroxidase.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. When the body burns sugar for energy, a group of molecules called ketones are produced.

 

ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The “blood” reagent pad reacts with both free hemoglobin and intact red blood cells.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Granular leukocytes, such as neutrophils, can be detected by the esterase substrate in the leukocyte pad.

 

ANS:  T                    PTS:   1

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. When tested with a urine reagent strip, a normal urine has a:
a. trace of glucose d. positive nitrite reaction
b. positive esterase reaction e. negative or trace protein
c. pH range of 6–9  

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following are true concerning positive or abnormal results on the reagent strip EXCEPT:
a. They should be confirmed according to laboratory policy.
b. They are confirmed using nonreagent strip confirmatory tests.
c. They must be sent to a reference laboratory.
d. Positive nitrite can be confirmed by microscopic examination of the sediment.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following tests for more than just one or two constituents?
a. Diastix c. Clinistix
b. Chemstrip d. Ketostix

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The Clinitest copper reduction test:
a. detects only lactose
b. can react with large amounts of penicillin
c. does not react with salicylates
d. is used to measure glucose in the urine of people who are diabetic
e. detects only galactose

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT normally required when handling urines?
a. face protection c. fume hood
b. gloves d. laboratory coat

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable policy for urine reagent strip quality assessment?
a. Test reagent strips weekly with urine controls.
b. Check the expiration date on the strip container daily.
c. Store strips protected from moisture.
d. Store strips according to manufacturer’s directions.
e. Keep reagent strips in the original container.

 

 

ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is the correct procedure to follow when performing chemical examination of urine by reagent strip?
a. Test the specimen at 4°C.
b. Test the specimen before it is centrifuged.
c. Allow urine to settle before testing.
d. Test the specimen in the dark.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following tests, when positive, is an indicator of early renal disease?
a. leukocyte esterase c. urobilinogen
b. ketones d. microalbumin

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following reagent strip results is NOT a normal finding?
a. negative blood d. 1+ ketones
b. pH 6.5 e. specific gravity 1.01
c. 0.1 E.U./dL urobilinogen  

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. All of the following could be positive in UTI EXCEPT:
a. leukocyte esterase d. blood
b. protein e. bilirubin
c. nitrite  

 

 

ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. Ketonuria occurs when the body burns ____________________ for energy.

 

ANS:

fat

fats

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The endpoint of the confirmatory test for urine protein is ____________________.

 

ANS:

precipitation

precipitate

granulation

flocculation

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. A degradation product of bilirubin that can be detected using the urine reagent strip is ____________________.

 

ANS:  urobilinogen

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. If white blood cells are present in urine, the ____________________ reagent strip pad should be positive.

 

ANS:

leukocyte esterase

esterase

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The Acetest is a confirmatory test for ____________________.

 

ANS:  ketones

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. chromogen g. pH below 7.0
b. bilirubin h. positive nitrite test
c. pH above 7.0 i. ketones
d. Ictotest j. albumin
e. proteinuria k. hematuria
f. precipitate l. microalbumin

 

 

  1. blood in the urine

 

  1. increased protein, usually albumin, in the urine

 

  1. most abundant protein in normal plasma

 

  1. substance that becomes colored when it undergoes a chemical change

 

  1. alkaline urine

 

  1. protein sulfosalicylic acid test

 

  1. urine must be tightly capped to prevent evaporation at room temperature

 

  1. decomposed by direct light

 

  1. Escherichia coli

 

  1. confirmatory test for bilirubin

 

  1. ANS:  K                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  J                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

 

 

 

Lesson 5-5: Microscopic Examination of Urine Sediment

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. All of the following are true of yeasts EXCEPT:
a. Yeasts are ovoid. c. Yeasts are smaller than RBCs.
b. Yeasts will lyse in dilute acetic acid. d. Yeasts are seen budding or in chains.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of casts?
a. Normal urine can have a few WBC casts.
b. Waxy casts are due to strenuous exercise.
c. An occasional hyaline cast is normal.
d. An occasional epithelial cast is normal.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. The type of cast formed in pyelonephritis is:
a. granular c. waxy
b. epithelial d. WBC

 

 

ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which is true of calcium oxalate crystals?
a. They look like coffin lids.
b. They can be seen after ingesting large doses of tomatoes or spinach.
c. They may appear pink to the naked eye.
d. They appear yellowish under the microscope.

 

 

ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. Which of the following is true of safety precautions while preparing urine sediment for microscopic examination?
a. Sediment slides are discarded in the wastebasket.
b. Specimens can be centrifuged with the centrifuge lid open.
c. Standard Precautions are to be observed.
d. Eye protection is not needed.

 

 

ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

COMPLETION

 

  1. In urinalysis, a protein matrix formed in the kidney tubules and washed out into the urine is called a(n) ____________________.

 

ANS:  cast

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The solids that settle to the bottom of a liquid are known as the ____________________.

 

ANS:  sediment

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When urine sediment is viewed under the microscope, ____________________ appear as small, pale, light-reflective disks.

 

ANS:

red blood cells

RBCs

erythrocytes

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The presence of large numbers of RBCs in the urine is called ____________________.

 

ANS:  hematuria

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When urine sediment is viewed under the microscope, WBCs appear slightly larger than RBCs, have a granular appearance, and have a visible ____________________.

 

ANS:  nucleus

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The objective used to identify and classify epithelial cells in urine sediment is the ____________________.

 

ANS:

high power objective

high-power objective

high power

40X objective

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Possible chronic or acute renal disease can be indicated by large numbers of ____________________.

 

ANS:

renal tubular cells

renal epithelial cells

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. When urine sediment is examined under the microscope, yeast cells can be mistaken for ____________________.

 

ANS:

red blood cells

RBCs

erythrocytes

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. Trichomonas vaginalis moves through the action of slender lashlike appendages known as ____________________.

 

ANS:  flagella

 

PTS:   1

 

  1. The most common yeast found in urine is ____________________.

 

ANS:

Candida albicans

  1. albicans

 

PTS:   1

 

MATCHING

 

Choose the best match for each item. Use an answer only once.

a. gout g. amorphous
b. Trichomonas vaginalis h. Candida albicans
c. cast i. midstream collection
d. urine control solutions j. bacteria
e. sediment k. “envelopes”
f. coffin lids l. supernatant

 

 

  1. without definite shape

 

  1. protein matrix formed in the kidney tubules

 

  1. specimen for microscopic examination

 

  1. flagellate

 

  1. yeast

 

  1. uric acid crystals

 

  1. calcium oxalate

 

  1. triple phosphate

 

  1. stabilized red and white blood cells

 

  1. avoids contamination of a urine specimen

 

  1. ANS:  G                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  C                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  E                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  B                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  H                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  A                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  K                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  F                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  D                    PTS:   1

 

  1. ANS:  I                     PTS:   1

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