Anatomy & Physiology The Unity Of FormAnd Function 7th Edition by Kenneth S. Saladin – Test Bank


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Chapter 05



True / False Questions

1. Mesoderm gives rise to muscle, bone, and blood.

True    False


2. Columnar cells lining the small intestine have a brush border of microvilli on the apical surface.

True    False


3. Nonkeratinized cells exfoliate from the surface of the skin.

True    False


4. In an epithelium, there is almost no extracellular matrix.

True    False


5. The clear gel that usually surrounds cells is called interstitial fluid.

True    False


6. Fibrocartilage is found in intervertebral discs.

True    False


7. Blood consists of cells and a ground substance made of formed elements.

True    False


8. Plasma cells produce the ground substance that forms the matrix of connective tissues.

True    False


9. Excitable cells respond to outside stimuli by means of changes in plasma membrane shape.

True    False


10. Smooth and cardiac muscles are under involuntary control.

True    False


11. Dendrites in a neuron send outgoing signals to other cells.

True    False


12. Desmosomes are more effective than tight junctions in preventing substances from passing between cells.

True    False


13. The duct of an endocrine gland leads into the bloodstream rather than onto an epithelial surface.

True    False


14. The secretory product of a gland is produced by its parenchyma, not its stroma.

True    False


15. Scar tissue helps to hold an organ together but does not restore normal function of the damaged tissue.

True    False



Multiple Choice Questions

16. The four primary tissue types found in adult organs include all of the following except _________ tissue.

A. connective


B. fibrous


C. nervous


D. epithelial


E. muscular


17. The __________ gives rise to the __________.

A. mesoderm; digestive glands


B. endoderm; muscular system and skeletal system


C. ectoderm; nervous system and epidermis


D. endoderm; mesoderm


E. mesoderm; endoderm


18. The clear gel inside a cell is called __________.

A. matrix


B. ground substance


C. interstitial fluid


D. cytosol


E. tissue fluid


19. A thin, stained slice of tissue mounted on a microscope is called a __________.

A. fixative


B. histological section


C. spread


D. stain


E. smear


20. The histological section that divides a specimen along its long axis is called a(n) __________ section.

A. cross


B. oblique


C. transverse


D. sagittal


E. longitudinal


21. The covering of body surfaces and the lining of body cavities is composed of __________ tissue.

A. interstitial


B. muscle


C. adipose


D. epithelial


E. nervous


22. An epithelium whose cells are tall and narrow, with each one touching the basement membrane and reaching the apical surface, is called __________ epithelium.

A. stratified squamous


B. stratified cuboidal


C. simple cuboidal


D. simple columnar


E. pseudostratified columnar


23. The basement membrane is found between __________ and __________.

A. epithelium; connective tissue


B. epithelium; extracellular material


C. epithelium; intracellular material


D. extracellular material; intracellular material


E. interstitial fluid; extracellular fluid


24. Rapid diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the air sacs (alveoli) of the lungs takes place through __________ epithelium.

A. simple squamous


B. simple cuboidal


C. simple columnar


D. keratinized stratified squamous


E. nonkeratinized stratified squamous


25. Most kidney tubules are made of __________ epithelial tissue, which is specialized for absorption and secretion.

A. simple columnar


B. stratified columnar


C. pseudostratified columnar


D. simple cuboidal


E. stratified cuboidal


26. __________ epithelium is the most widespread epithelium in the body, whereas __________ epithelium is rare.

A. Simple columnar; stratified columnar


B. Stratified squamous; stratified columnar


C. Pseudostratified; stratified squamous


D. Simple cuboidal; stratified squamous


E. Stratified squamous; simple squamous


27. Some simple columnar and pseudostratified columnar epithelia have _________ cells, which produce a protective mucous coating over the mucous membranes.

A. fibrous


B. blood


C. basal


D. keratinized


E. goblet


28. A brush border of microvilli is found in __________ epithelium, which can be found in the __________.

A. pseudostratified; nasal cavity


B. simple cuboidal; esophagus


C. simple columnar; small intestine


D. stratified squamous; anal canal


E. stratified squamous; esophagus


29. All cells in _______ epithelium reach the basement membrane, but only cells that reach the free surface have cilia.

A. pseudostratified columnar


B. simple columnar


C. stratified columnar


D. stratified cuboidal


E. stratified squamous


30. Found in the urinary bladder, __________ epithelium resembles __________ epithelium, but the apical cells are rounded, not flattened.

A. transitional; stratified squamous


B. stratified squamous; pseudostratified


C. stratified squamous; stratified columnar


D. simple columnar; pseudostratified


E. transitional; simple cuboidal


31. __________ epithelium provides a moist and slippery surface and is well suited to resist stress, as seen in the __________.

A. Transitional; tongue


B. Keratinized; tongue


C. Nonkeratinized; skin


D. Keratinized; skin


E. Nonkeratinized; vagina


32. __________ epithelium is associated with rapid transport of substances through a membrane, whereas __________ epithelium is associated with resistance to abrasion.

A. Simple columnar; transitional


B. Simple squamous; stratified squamous


C. Simple cuboidal; pseudostratified


D. Pseudostratified; simple squamous


E. Pseudostratified; simple cuboidal


33. Which of the following is not a feature that almost all connective tissues have in common?

A. Most cells are not in direct contact with each other.


B. Ground substance is so scarce that it is not visible with a light microscope.


C. Cells usually occupy less space than the extracellular material.


D. Protein fibers are usually present in the ground substance.


E. Most connective tissues are highly vascular.


34. An example of a highly vascular tissue is __________ tissue. An example of a tissue that is not highly vascular is __________.

A. epithelial; cartilage


B. muscular; osseous tissue


C. dense regular connective; dense irregular connective tissue


D. areolar; cartilage


E. nervous; osseous tissue


35. Which of the following is not a feature that connective tissues have in common?

A. Very conspicuous fibers


B. The presence of fibroblasts


C. The presence of collagen


D. Ground substance with a gelatinous to rubbery consistency


E. A calcified matrix


36. The shape of a person’s external ear is due to the presence of __________.

A. dense regular connective tissue


B. dense irregular connective tissue


C. elastic cartilage


D. fibrocartilage


E. ligaments


37. Which of the following is not a type of fibrous connective tissue?

A. Reticular tissue


B. Hyaline cartilage


C. Dense regular connective tissue


D. Dense irregular connective tissue


E. Areolar tissue


38. New triglycerides are constantly being synthesized and stored, while others are hydrolyzed and released into the circulation by the cells found in __________.

A. blood


B. fibrous connective tissue


C. adipose tissue


D. reticular tissue


E. transitional tissue


39. The rubbery matrix of cartilage is secreted by __________, whereas _________ produce the fibers and ground substance that form the matrix of fibrous connective tissue.

A. chondroblasts; plasma cells


B. mast cells; fibroblasts


C. osteocytes; chondroblasts


D. chondroblasts; fibroblasts


E. adipocytes; plasma cells


40. Marfan syndrome is a hereditary defect of elastin fibers. People with this syndrome have __________.

A. hyperextensible joints


B. a small cranium


C. elastic bones


D. stronger bones


E. viscous blood


41. Which of the following does not account for the gelatinous consistency of connective tissue ground substance?

A. Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs)


B. Proteoglycans


C. Chondroitin sulfate


D. Hyaluronic acid


E. Collagen


42. Collagenous fibers are very abundant in __________.

A. blood and hyaline cartilage


B. blood, adipose tissue, and osseous tissue


C. ligaments, bones, and the most superficial portion of the skin


D. tendons, ligaments, and the deeper portion of the skin


E. areolar tissue, tongue, and bones


43. Fibroblasts and protein fibers are associated with both __________ and __________.

A. dense regular; dense irregular connective tissues


B. plasma; formed elements


C. elastic cartilage; hyaline cartilage


D. spongy bone; compact (dense) bone


E. adipose tissue; reticular tissue


44. Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) help give the ground substance some of its qualities, including _________.

A. helping to transfer charges in the nervous system


B. holding water and maintaining electrolyte balance


C. giving bone its brittle, inorganic structure


D. providing the major structural support of tendons and ligaments


E. acting as an energy reserve for muscle contraction


45. Blood functions to __________________.

A. allow for heart contraction and relaxation


B. store energy for the heart


C. provide support to the heart


D. line the heart chambers


E. transport nutrients to the tissues


46. __________________ exhibits a lot of apparently empty space, and is found in many serous membranes.

A. Blood


B. Areolar tissue


C. Osseous tissue


D. Dense irregular connective tissue


E. Adipose tissue


47. __________________ tissues respond quickly to outside stimuli by means of changes in membrane potential.

A. Excitable


B. Responsive


C. Adipose


D. Epithelial


E. Connective


48. Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and __________.

A. fibroblasts


B. chondrocytes


C. neuroglia


D. myocytes


E. osteocytes


49. Astronauts in zero gravity are able to move food through their digestive tracts because __________.

A. smooth muscle produces waves of contractions that propel material through the digestive tract


B. skeletal muscle puts pressure on the digestive tract


C. cardiac muscle maintains a high pressure that moves material through the digestive tract


D. striated muscle creates a pressure gradient that forces material from one end of the digestive tract to the other


E. skeletal muscle sphincters contract and allow materials to move through the digestive tract


50. Skeletal muscle is described as __________.

A. striated and voluntary


B. striated and involuntary


C. nonstriated and voluntary


D. nonstriated and involuntary


E. fibrous and containing ground substance


51. A connective tissue fiber refers to a(n) __________, a nerve fiber refers to a(n) __________, and a muscle fiber refers to a(n) __________.

A. entire cell; organelle; tissue


B. organelle; entire cell; part of a cell


C. organelle; entire cell; complex of macromolecules


D. complex of macromolecules; entire cell; part of a cell


E. complex of macromolecules; part of a cell; entire cell


52. In the intestine, __________ ensure(s) that most digested nutrients pass through the epithelial cells and not between them.

A. the plasma membrane


B. desmosomes


C. tight junctions


D. gap (communicating) junctions


E. ground substance


53. __________ secrete __________ into __________.

A. Goblet cells; mucus; the blood


B. Endocrine glands; hormones; ducts


C. Exocrine glands; hormones; ducts


D. Endocrine glands; hormones; the blood


E. Exocrine glands; mucus; the blood


54. Mucin is secreted by__________ glands, which combines with water to form a thick and sticky product. _________ glands produce a relatively watery fluid.

A. mucous; serous


B. merocrine; holocrine


C. apocrine; mixed


D. endocrine; exocrine


E. serous; mucous


55. __________ glands (such as tear glands) have vesicles that release their secretion via exocytosis. __________ glands (such as oil-producing glands) secrete a mixture of disintegrated cells and their products.

A. Endocrine; Exocrine


B. Mucous; Serous


C. Exocrine; Apocrine


D. Mucous; Cutaneous


E. Merocrine; Holocrine


56. Glands that have branched ducts and secretory cells that form sacs at one end of the ducts are classified as ___________ glands.

A. areolar


B. simple acinar


C. simple coiled tubular


D. compound acinar


E. compound tubuloacinar


57. The membrane that lines the lumenal surfaces of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts consists of _________.

A. simple squamous epithelium and dense irregular connective tissue


B. areolar and dense irregular connective tissue


C. epithelium and lamina propria


D. areolar tissue and lamina propria


E. simple squamous epithelium and areolar tissue


58. Most membranes are composed of two or three tissue types. However, an example of an exception is the ___________ membrane.

A. mucous


B. serous


C. synovial


D. cutaneous


E. basement


59. The membrane that lines passageways that open to the exterior environment is called __________.

A. the lamina propria


B. endothelium


C. a synovial membrane


D. a serous membrane (serosa)


E. a mucous membrane (mucosa)


60. After six months of lifting weights at the gym, you notice that some of your muscles have increased in size. This increase in size is due to __________ of muscle cells.

A. hyperplasia


B. neoplasia


C. hypertrophy


D. metaplasia


E. atrophy


61. The middle primary germ layer is called __________, which gives rise to a gelatinous material called __________, which then gives rise to different types of connective tissue such as bone, cartilage, and blood.

A. ectoderm; stem cells


B. mesoderm; mesenchyme


C. endoderm; mesenchyme


D. mesoderm; fibroblasts


E. ectoderm; mesenchyme


62. Most biologists see embryonic stem (ES) cells as a possible treatment for diseases that result from the loss of functional cells. This possibility is based on the fact that ES cells are __________ stem cells.

A. unipotent


B. multipotent


C. pluripotent


D. totipotent


E. omnipotent


63. The pseudostratified columnar epithelium of the bronchi in smokers may transform into stratified squamous epithelium. This is an example of __________.

A. neoplasia


B. metaplasia


C. atrophy


D. differentiation


E. hyperplasia


64. With regard to the healing of a skin wound, macrophages ___________.

A. release histamine to increase blood flow to the area


B. produce and secrete collagenous fibers


C. phagocytize and digest tissue debris


D. stimulate epithelial cells to multiply


E. make capillaries more permeable allowing white blood cells to migrate into the area


65. It is normal for breasts to shrink after lactation ceases. This is a consequence of __________ in human breast cells.

A. necrosis


B. apoptosis


C. atrophy


D. infarction


E. gangrene


66. The replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue is called _________.

A. necrosis


B. apoptosis


C. gangrene


D. regeneration


E. fibrosis



True / False Questions

67. Connective tissues contain abundant cells that are on contact with one another.

True    False


68. Neurons are a major type of cell found in nervous tissue.

True    False


69. Most growth in childhood is the result of hyperplasia.

True    False


70. Adult stem cells are usually pluripotent.

True    False


71. The process of a cell changing types to respond to its environment is called neoplasia.

True    False


72. Rapid cell death caused by a complete cutting off of blood supply is called gangrene.

True    False





Chapter 18

The Circulatory System: Blood


True / False Questions

1. Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood.

True    False


2. Blood viscosity stems mainly from electrolytes and monomers dissolved in plasma.

True    False


3. Lymphoid hemopoiesis occurs mainly in the bone marrow.

True    False


4. Oxygen and carbon dioxide bind to different parts of hemoglobin.

True    False


5. The liver stores excess iron in ferritin.

True    False


6. The most important components in the cytoplasm of RBCs are hemoglobin and carbonic anhydrase.

True    False


7. A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.

True    False


8. Incompatibility of one person’s blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs’ antigens.

True    False


9. Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh+ woman and an Rh fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.

True    False


10. Circulating WBCs spend most of their lives in the bloodstream.

True    False


11. Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory.

True    False


12. Monocytes differentiate into large phagocytic cells.

True    False


13. Coagulation starts with a vascular spasm and ends with the formation of a platelet plug.

True    False


14. Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.

True    False


15. After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis.

True    False



Multiple Choice Questions

16. Which of the following is not a function of blood?

A. Transports a variety of nutrients


B. Helps to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids


C. Participates in the initiation of blood clotting


D. Produces plasma hormones


E. Helps to regulate body temperature


17. Which of the following is not contained in the buffy coat?

A. Lymphocytes


B. Granulocytes


C. Erythrocytes


D. Agranulocytes


E. Platelets


18. A normal hematocrit is __________ of the total blood volume.

A. less than 1%


B. 47% to 63%


C. 25% to 37%


D. 42% to 45%


E. 37% to 52%


19. Which of the following is not normally found in plasma?

A. Glycogen


B. Fibrinogen


C. Glucose


D. Urea


E. Albumin


20. Which of the following proteins is not normally found in plasma?

A. Albumin


B. Hemoglobin


C. Transferrin


D. Prothrombin


E. Fibrinogen


21. What is the most abundant protein in plasma?

A. Insulin


B. Creatine


C. Bilirubin


D. Albumin


E. Creatinine


22. Which of the following would not decrease the blood colloid osmotic pressure (COP)?

A. Severe liver failure


B. A diet predominantly based on red meat


C. Starvation


D. An extremely low-protein diet


E. Hypoproteinemia


23. Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of __________.

A. fibrinogen


B. nitrogenous wastes


C. platelets


D. glucose


E. albumin


24. Tissues can become edematous (swollen) when which of the following occurs?

A. Colloid osmotic pressure (COP) is high.


B. There is hyperproteinemia.


C. The concentration of sodium and proteins in blood is high.


D. The hematocrit is high.


E. There is a dietary protein deficiency.


25. Where does myeloid hemopoiesis take place in adults?

A. Thymus


B. Spleen


C. Red bone marrow


D. Yellow bone marrow


E. Liver


26. The viscosity of blood is due more to the presence of  __________ than to any other factor.

A. fibrin


B. albumin


C. sodium


D. erythrocytes


E. nitrogenous wastes


27. Erythrocytes transport oxygen and __________.

A. defend the body against pathogens


B. initiate blood clotting


C. regulate erythropoiesis


D. transport nutrients


E. transport some carbon dioxide


28. Most oxygen is transported in the blood bound to __________.

A. the plasma membrane of erythrocytes


B. alpha chains in hemoglobin


C. beta chains in hemoglobin


D. delta chains in hemoglobin


E. heme groups in hemoglobin


29. What would happen if all of the hemoglobin contained within the RBCs became free in the plasma?

A. It would considerably increase blood oxygen carrying capacity.


B. It would facilitate delivery of oxygen into tissues supplied by small capillaries.


C. It would facilitate oxygen diffusion into cells distant from blood capillaries.


D. It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.


E. It would drastically increase osmotic colloid pressure.


30. An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except __________.

A. increased hypoxemia


B. increased blood osmolarity


C. increased RBC production


D. increased blood viscosity


E. increased hematocrit


31. Where do most RBCs die?

A. Stomach and small intestine


B. Red bone marrow


C. Spleen and liver


D. Lymph nodes and thymus


E. Stomach and liver


32. Which of the following would not lead to polycythemia?

A. Cancer of the erythropoietic line of the red bone marrow


B. Iron deficiency


C. Dehydration


D. Emphysema


E. Excessive aerobic exercise


33. Which of the following is most likely to cause anemia?

A. High altitude


B. Air pollution other than by carbon monoxide


C. Renal disease


D. Smoking


E. Any factor that creates a state of hypoxemia


34. Which of the following is not true of a patient with anemia?

A. Their blood viscosity is increased.


B. They are lethargic.


C. Their blood osmolarity is reduced.


D. Their resistance to blood flow is reduced.


E. More fluid transfers from their bloodstream into their intercellular spaces.


35. What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?

A. Biliverdin


B. Bilirubin


C. Globin


D. Heme


E. Iron


36. Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by __________.

A. a self-amplifying mechanism


B. an enzymatic amplification


C. a positive feedback loop


D. a negative feedback loop


E. a cascade effect


37. A deficiency of __________ can cause pernicious anemia.

A. vitamin C


B. iron


C. vitamin B12


D. EPO secretion


E. folic acid


38. Which of the following is not true regarding sickle-cell disease?

A. It is caused by a recessive allele that modifies the structure of hemoglobin.


B. It is due to a hereditary hemoglobin defect.


C. It is advantageous in that it can protect carriers against malaria.


D. It is a cause of malaria.


E. It is a cause of anemia.


39. The ABO blood group is determined by __________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.

A. glycolipids


B. glycoproteins


C. antibodies


D. antigen-antibody complexes


E. agglutinins


40. A person with type A blood can safely donate RBCs to someone of type __________ and can receive RBCs from someone of type __________.

A. O; AB


B. AB; O


C. A; B


D. B; A


E. O; O


41. A person with type AB blood has __________ RBC antigen(s).

A. no


B. anti-A and anti-B


C. anti-A


D. anti-B


E. A and B


42. Why are pregnant Rh women given an injection of Rh immune globulin?

A. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-D antibodies.


B. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-A and anti-B antibodies.


C. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-A antibodies.


D. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-O antibodies.


E. Antibodies in the injection bind fetal RBC antigens so they cannot stimulate her immune system to produce anti-B antibodies.


43. The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is blood type __________.

A. AB, Rh-negative


B. AB, Rh-positive


C. O, Rh-negative


D. O, Rh-positive


E. ABO, Rh-negative


44. An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has __________ antigen(s) and can produce anti-__________ antibodies.

A. A and D; B


B. B and D; A


C. B; A and D


D. A; B and D


E. D; A and B


45. The main reason why an individual with type AB, Rh-negative blood cannot donate blood to an individual with type A, Rh-positive blood is because __________.

A. anti-A antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient


B. anti-A antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor


C. anti-B antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient


D. anti-D antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBC of the recipient


E. anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor


46. A woman’s first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type __________ and both children are most likely __________.

A. A, Rh-negative; B, Rh-positive


B. A, Rh-positive; B, Rh-negative


C. O, Rh-negative; AB, Rh-negative


D. AB, Rh-positive; O, Rh-negative


E. AB, Rh-positive; O, Rh-positive


47. What are the least abundant of the formed elements?

A. Platelets


B. Basophils


C. Erythrocytes


D. Neutrophils


E. Eosinophils


48. What are the most abundant agranulocytes?

A. Macrophages


B. Eosinophils


C. Monocytes


D. Lymphocytes


E. Neutrophils


49. The number of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.

A. basophils


B. monocytes


C. erythrocytes


D. eosinophils


E. neutrophils


50. Which cells aid in the body’s defense processes by secreting histamine and heparin?

A. Eosinophils


B. Basophils


C. Neutrophils


D. Platelets


E. Monocytes


51. Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of __________.

A. pluripotent stem cells


B. precursor cells


C. colony-forming units


D. myeloblasts


E. lymphoblasts


52. Some lymphocytes can survive as long as __________.

A. days


B. weeks


C. months


D. years


E. decades


53. A patient is diagnosed with leukocytosis if they have more than __________ WBCs/μL.

A. 100,000


B. 50,000


C. 10,000


D. 5,000


E. 1,000


54. Which of the following has not been implicated in causing leukopenia?


A. Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)


B. Lead poisoning


C. Radiation therapy


D. Dehydration


E. Immunosuppressant drugs


55. What is the largest leukocyte that contains small cytoplasmic granules and typically a kidney- or horseshoe-shaped nucleus?

A. Monocyte


B. Lymphocyte


C. Neutrophil


D. Eosinophil


E. Basophil


56. Which of the following are not secreted by platelets?

A. Procoagulants


B. Thrombopoietin


C. Growth factors


D. Vasoconstrictors


E. Chemicals that attract neutrophils


57. The cessation of bleeding is specifically called __________.

A. a vascular spasm


B. homeostasis


C. hemostasis


D. platelet plug formation


E. coagulation


58. What is the function of thromboplastin in hemostasis?

A. It initiates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation.


B. It initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.


C. It converts prothrombin into thrombin.


D. It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor to reduce blood loss.


E. It dissolves the clot after the tissue has healed.


59. When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by __________.

A. prothrombin


B. thromboplastin


C. kallikrein


D. plasmin


E. platelet-derived growth factor


60. Which of these does not prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot?

A. The presence of tissue thromboplastin


B. The smooth prostacyclin-coated endothelium of blood vessels


C. The dilution of thrombin when blood flows at a normal rate


D. The presence of antithrombin in plasma


E. The presence of heparin in plasma


61. Platelets release __________, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.

A. heparin


B. thrombin


C. thromboplastin


D. prostacyclin


E. serotonin


62. The structural framework of a blood clot is formed by __________.

A. soluble fibrinogen


B. soluble fibrin


C. a fibrin polymer


D. a fibrinogen polymer


E. a thrombin polymer


63. Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the __________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) __________.

A. thrombus; embolus


B. embolism; thrombus


C. plaque; thrombus


D. thrombosis; plaque


E. plaque; embolus


64. During coagulation, which of the following is found in the extrinsic mechanism only?

A. Calcium


B. Prothrombin activator


C. Prothrombin


D. Thromboplastin


E. Thrombin


65. Where are most clotting factors synthesized in the body?

A. Spleen


B. Red bone marrow


C. Perivascular tissue


D. Kidneys


E. Liver


66. A patient is suffering from ketoacidosis caused by an unregulated high protein diet.  Which function of the blood has been compromised?

A. Stabilizing fluid distribution in the body


B. Stabilizing the body’s pH


C. Protecting against microorganisms


D. Transporting nutrients


E. Transporting hormones


67. Where in the body are hemopoietic stem cells found?

A. Yellow bone marrow


B. Thymus


C. Red bone marrow


D. Spleen


E. Liver


68. Which of the following might be injected into a patient who is prone to forming blood clots and therefore at risk of a heart attack or stroke?

A. Thromboplastin


B. Fibrinogen


C. Fibrin


D. Heparin


E. Factor X


69. Blood clots in the limbs put a patient most at risk for __________.

A. hemophilia


B. pulmonary embolism


C. thrombocytopenia


D. disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)


E. septicemia



True / False Questions

70. Blood groups are made up of any surface antigen on formed elements, not just ABO and Rh, and include over 500 known antigens.

True    False


71. Blood groups are used for legal purposes and in anthropology.

True    False



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