Radiography Essentials for Limited Practice 4th Edition by Bruce W. Long – Test Bank

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Chapter 5: X-Ray Production

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. The x-ray tube inside the protective housing is made of:
a. lead.
b. steel.
c. aluminum.
d. Pyrex glass.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. What are the four essential elements required for x-ray production?
a. A target, a vacuum, an electron source, and a high potential difference
b. A target, a source of electrons, an inert gas environment, and a high potential difference
c. A source of electrons, a magnetic field, a resistance-free path, and a target
d. A source of electrons, an electric field, a circuit, and a target

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. The filament of an x-ray tube is made of:
a. glass.
b. a coil of copper wire.
c. a coil of tungsten wire.
d. a fluorescent tube.

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. The target of the x-ray tube is made of:
a. tungsten.
b. glass.
c. stainless steel.
d. fluorescent phosphors.

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. A device for removing long wavelength radiation from the primary x-ray beam is a:
a. collimator.
b. rheostat.
c. rectifier.
d. filter.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 61

 

  1. The “electron cloud” that surrounds the hot cathode is referred to as a:
a. focusing cup.
b. photon.
c. filament.
d. space charge.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. Free electrons at the cathode that are used for x-ray production come from the:
a. filament.
b. target.
c. anode.
d. kilovoltage.

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. When tungsten atoms are heated, their outermost electrons are moved out of the atom in space. This principle is called:
a. electromagnetic induction.
b. variable resistance.
c. quantum theory.
d. thermionic emission.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. The anode, or target, of the x-ray tube is ______ charged.
a. positively
b. negatively
c. neutrally
d. radioactively

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. The cathode end of the x-ray tube is ______ charged.
a. positively
b. negatively
c. neutrally
d. radioactively

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. Most x-ray tubes in use today have a standard rotation speed of ______ rpm.
a. 1,500
b. 2,000
c. 3,600
d. 10,000

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 57

 

  1. What is the principal advantage of a high-speed rotating anode?
a. More efficient production of x-rays
b. Increased amount of characteristic radiation produced
c. Increased amount of bremsstrahlung radiation produced
d. More efficient heat dissipation

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 57

 

  1. The greatest portion of the x-ray beam is made up of:
a. characteristic-produced radiation.
b. bremsstrahlung-produced radiation.
c. low-energy electrons.
d. high-energy electrons.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 54

 

  1. Below what kVp level is characteristic radiation no longer produced?
a. 40 kVp
b. 50 kVp
c. 70 kVp
d. 100 kVp

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 54

 

  1. What is required to move the electron stream rapidly across the x-ray tube?
a. Magnetic field
b. High potential difference
c. Focusing cups
d. Copper mass in the target

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 53

 

  1. More than 99% of the energy applied to an x-ray tube is converted into:
a. bremsstrahlung radiation.
b. characteristic radiation.
c. secondary radiation.
d. heat.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 54

 

  1. What percentage of the total energy applied to an x-ray tube target is converted into x-rays?
a. 1%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 99%

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 54

 

  1. Which of the following are the types of radiation produced in the anode?
a. Thermionic emission and heat
b. Electromagnetic and thermal
c. Characteristic and bremsstrahlung
d. Remnant and scatter

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 55

 

  1. What type of radiation is produced in the anode by the sudden slowing and directional change of an incoming electron?
a. Characteristic radiation
b. Scatter radiation
c. Bremsstrahlung radiation
d. Thermionic emission

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 54

 

  1. What type of radiation is produced when an incoming electron interacts with the K-shell electron in the tungsten atom?
a. Characteristic radiation
b. Scatter radiation
c. Bremsstrahlung radiation
d. Thermionic emission

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 54

 

  1. The purpose of rotating the x-ray tube target is to:
a. create a space charge.
b. speed up the electrons in the electron stream.
c. remove long wavelength photons from the x-ray beam.
d. increase the heat capacity of the anode.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 57

 

  1. The degree of angulation of the x-ray tube target will determine the:
a. effective focal spot.
b. speed of anode rotation.
c. number of photons in the x-ray beam.
d. heat capacity of the anode.

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 57

 

  1. A smaller effective focal spot produces:
a. greater tube heat capacity.
b. lower patient dose.
c. more characteristic radiation.
d. greater image sharpness.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 57

 

  1. A larger actual focal spot produces:
a. greater image sharpness.
b. greater tube heat capacity.
c. lower patient dose.
d. more characteristic radiation.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 58

 

  1. Which of the following can be found on a dual-focus x-ray tube?
  2. Two filaments
  3. Two focal spot sizes
  4. Two anodes
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 55

 

  1. The anode heel effect is a phenomenon of x-ray production that results in:
a. dissipation of anode heat.
b. filtration of long wavelengths from the x-ray beam.
c. uneven distribution of radiation within the field.
d. the production of characteristic radiation.

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 59

 

  1. Taking into account the anode heel effect when making a recumbent AP radiograph of the femur (thigh bone) on a 14 ´ 17-inch IR at 40 inches SID, the patient should be placed so that the:
a. head is toward the anode end of the tube.
b. head is toward the cathode end of the tube.
c. position is convenient; the anode heel effect is not significant in this case.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 59

 

  1. The penetrating power of the x-ray beam is controlled by varying the:
a. anode angle.
b. anode speed.
c. milliamperage.
d. kilovoltage.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 59

 

  1. The current across the x-ray tube is measured in units of:
a. milliamperes.
b. kilovolts.
c. roentgens.
d. ohms.

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. Which of the following occurs when the mA is doubled?
  2. The number of x-ray photons decreases by 50%.
  3. Radiographic density increases.
  4. There are twice as many photons in the x-ray beam.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. The mAs used for an exposure determines the:
a. wavelength of the resulting x-ray beam.
b. quantity of radiation in the exposure.
c. rate at which x-rays are produced.
d. voltage across the x-ray tube.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. An x-ray exposure is made using the following factors: 400 mA, 0.02 sec, 80 kVp, 40 inches SID, and the large focal spot. What is the mAs for this exposure technique?
a. 0.08 mAs
b. 0.8 mAs
c. 8 mAs
d. 80 mAs

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. When exposure time is very short, the time is usually measured in:
a. milliseconds.
b. deciseconds.
c. kiloelectron volts.
d. angstroms.

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. If an exposure time is measured as 35 milliseconds, what is the exposure time in seconds?
a. 0.350 seconds
b. 350 seconds
c. 0.035 seconds
d. 3.5 seconds

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. The x-ray beam is made up of many different energy x-rays. This beam is referred to as:
a. attenuated.
b. heterogenous.
c. ionized.
d. electromagnetic.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 55

 

  1. Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of tungsten?
a. Tungsten has a low melting point.
b. Tungsten is a very soft metal.
c. Tungsten is a very unstable element.
d. Tungsten has a high melting point.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 56

 

  1. X-ray equipment capable of producing 70 kVp or more must have how much equivalent aluminum filtration?
a. 0.5 mm Al equivalent
b. 1.0 mm Al equivalent
c. 2.5 mm Al equivalent
d. 3.5 mm Al equivalent

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 61

 

  1. What is the primary advantage of x-ray beam filtration?
a. Increases the heat capacity of the x-ray tube
b. Improves image quality
c. Lowers patient dose
d. Provides a more even density along the length of a part

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 61

 

  1. A steeper target angle provides:
a. more heat capacity.
b. lower patient dose.
c. less anode heel effect.
d. smaller effective focal spot.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 57

 

  1. Filtration ______ the average wavelength of the x-ray beam.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not affect
d. has no relation to

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. The precise area on the target where the x-rays strike is called the:
a. focal track.
b. focal spot.
c. actual focal spot.
d. effective focal spot.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 55

 

  1. Where is the electromagnetic induction motor used in the x-ray machine?
a. Rotate the anode
b. Move the tabletop
c. Move the grid
d. Send electrons to the filament

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 56

 

  1. The difference in x-ray intensity (or volume of x-rays) between the anode and the cathode side of the x-ray beam is:
a. 45%.
b. 60%.
c. 75%.
d. 80%.

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 59

 

  1. The density in the radiographic image is primarily controlled by the:
a. mA.
b. mAs.
c. kVp.
d. SID.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. The contrast in the radiographic image is controlled by the:
a. ma.
b. mAs.
c. kVp.
d. exposure time.

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 60

 

  1. Which of the following would be considered inherent filtration?
  2. Oil
  3. Mirror
  4. Pyrex glass
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 61

 

  1. Which of the following would be considered added filtration in the x-ray tube?
a. Oil
b. Pyrex glass
c. Aluminum
d. Tungsten

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 61

 

 

 

Chapter 17: Skull, Facial Bones, and Paranasal Sinuses

Test Bank

 

MULTIPLE CHOICE

 

  1. How many bones comprise the skull?
a. 14
b. 18
c. 22
d. 31

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Which of the following bones are categorized as cranial bones?
  2. Maxilla
  3. Ethmoid
  4. Parietal
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Which of the following cranial bones are paired (right and left)?
  2. Frontal
  3. Parietal
  4. Temporal
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. The bony prominence on the frontal bone between the eyebrows is called the:
a. acanthion.
b. glabella.
c. gonion.
d. nasion.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is the medical term for the bony sockets that house the eyes?
a. Eye sockets
b. Supraorbital margins
c. Glabella
d. Orbits

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Which cranial bone is most posterior?
a. Occipital bone
b. Frontal bone
c. Mandible
d. Parietal bone

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Which cranial bone is most anterior?
a. Occipital bone
b. Frontal bone
c. Parietal bone
d. Temporal bone

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Which cranial bone has a dense, pyramid of bone that houses the middle and inner ear structures?
a. Occipital bone
b. Frontal bone
c. Parietal bone
d. Temporal bone

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What does the acronym “EAM” represent?
a. External auditory meatus
b. External anterior mastoid
c. External anterior meatus
d. External acoustic magnum

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. The mastoid process is part of the ______ bone(s).
a. temporal
b. occipital
c. parietal
d. frontal

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is the name of the articulation between the mandible and the cranium?
a. Craniomandibular joint
b. Temporomandibular joint
c. Mastomandibular joint
d. Mentomandibular joint

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. What is the term for the articulations between the cranial bones?
a. Glabellae
b. Sutures
c. Acanthions
d. Foramina

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is the name of the articulation between the frontal bone and the parietal bones?
a. Squamosal suture
b. Lambdoidal suture
c. Coronal suture
d. Sagittal suture

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is the name of the articulation between the parietal bones?
a. Squamosal suture
b. Lambdoidal suture
c. Coronal suture
d. Sagittal suture

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is the name of the articulation between the parietal bones and the occipital bone?
a. Squamosal suture
b. Lambdoidal suture
c. Coronal suture
d. Sagittal suture

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is the name of the articulation between the parietal bones and temporal bones?
a. Lambdoidal suture
b. Coronal suture
c. Sagittal suture
d. Squamosal suture

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Where is the coronal suture?
a. Between the frontal and parietal bones
b. Between the right and left parietal bones
c. Between the parietal bones and the temporal bones
d. Between the parietal bones and the occipital bone

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Where is the sagittal suture?
a. Between the frontal and parietal bones
b. Between the right and left parietal bones
c. Between the parietal bones and the temporal bones
d. Between the parietal bones and the occipital bone

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Where is the lambdoidal suture?
a. Between the frontal and parietal bones
b. Between the right and left parietal bones
c. Between the parietal bones and the temporal bones
d. Between the parietal bones and the occipital bone

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Where is the squamosal suture?
a. Between the frontal and parietal bones
b. Between the right and left parietal bones
c. Between the parietal bones and the temporal bones
d. Between the parietal bones and the occipital bone

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Which of the following is the positioning landmark located at the junction of the nose and the upper lip?
a. Glabella
b. Acanthion
c. Foramen magnum
d. EAM

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. In which bone can the foramen magnum be found?
a. Frontal
b. Temporal
c. Ethmoid
d. Occipital

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is the foramen magnum?
a. A large hole in the occipital bone
b. A large hole in the zygoma
c. The articulation between the mandible and the cranium
d. The articulation between the parietal bones

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What structure serves as the passageway for the spinal cord to exit the skull and pass into the spinal canal of the vertebral column?
a. EAM
b. Foramen magnum
c. Sella turcica
d. Crista galli

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Which structure houses the pituitary gland?
a. EAM
b. Foramen magnum
c. Sella turcica
d. Crista galli

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is the sella turcica?
a. A large hole in the skull that serves as the passageway for the spinal cord to exit the skull
b. The structure that houses the organs for hearing and balance
c. The structure that houses the pituitary gland
d. An accessory sinus that occasionally forms during adolescence

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. The sella turcica is located on the ______ bone.
a. frontal
b. ethmoid
c. occipital
d. sphenoid

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. The EAM is located in the ______ bone.
a. temporal
b. ethmoid
c. occipital
d. frontal

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. What is contained within the petrous pyramids?
a. Air cells
b. Middle and inner ear structures
c. Pituitary gland
d. Spinal cord

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. The petrous pyramid is a portion of which bone?
a. Sphenoid bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Temporal bone
d. Occipital bone

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 341

 

  1. Which is the only moveable facial bone?
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Zygoma
d. Lacrimal

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. What common positioning landmark is located on the anterior, lower margin of the mandible?
a. Gonion
b. Glabella
c. Mental protuberance
d. Mental foramen

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. What term is used to identify the angle of the mandible?
a. Mental point
b. Glabella
c. Acanthion
d. Gonion

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. Which of the following are facial bones?
  2. Vomer
  3. Mandible
  4. Ethmoid
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3 only

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. Which facial bones contain the structures that hold the roots of the teeth?
a. Mandible and maxillae
b. Zygoma and maxillae
c. Mandible and zygoma
d. Maxillae and temporal

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. What is the name of the structure that holds the roots of the teeth?
a. Petrous pyramids
b. Gonion
c. Alveolar process
d. Sella turcica

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. Which facial bones help to form the hard palate of the mouth?
a. Vomer
b. Palatine
c. Inferior nasal conchae
d. Lacrimal

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. Which facial bone forms the inferior part of the nasal septum?
a. Palatine
b. Inferior nasal conchae
c. Mandible
d. Vomer

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. Air-filled cavities located in some bones of the face and cranium are called:
a. cranial sutures.
b. zygomatic prominences.
c. paranasal sinuses.
d. paranasal foramina.

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. Which of the following bones contain paranasal sinuses?
  2. Frontal
  3. Ethmoid
  4. Temporal
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 343

 

  1. What positioning landmark is located at the inner corner of the eye?
a. Inner canthus
b. EAM
c. Nasion
d. Acanthion

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 345

 

  1. The depression on the anterior surface of the skull between the orbits is called the:
a. acanthion.
b. inner canthus.
c. infraorbital margin.
d. nasion.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 345

 

  1. There are several imaginary lines used to position the skull and facial bones. Which imaginary line connects the outer corner of the eye to the EAM?
a. The infraorbitomeatal line
b. The orbitomeatal line
c. The acanthiomeatal line
d. The mentomeatal line

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 345

 

  1. When taking a PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull, the central ray is directed:
a. 15 degrees cephalad.
b. 15 degrees caudad.
c. 30 degrees cephalad.
d. 30 degrees caudad.

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 346

 

  1. Which radiographic baseline is used to position the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the cranium?
a. Either the OML or the IOML
b. Mentomeatal
c. IOML
d. OML

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 346

 

  1. What is the proper position of the radiographic baseline for the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the cranium?
a. Perpendicular to IR
b. Parallel with IR
c. Perpendicular to CR
d. 37 degrees from IR

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 346

 

  1. Which projection of the cranium demonstrates the petrous ridges within the orbits?
a. AP axial (Towne method)
b. PA
c. PA axial (Caldwell method)
d. SMV

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 346

 

  1. Which cranial projection best demonstrates the occipital bone?
a. PA
b. PA axial (Caldwell method)
c. AP axial (Towne method)
d. Lateral

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 348

 

  1. Which projection of the cranium best demonstrates the frontal bone?
a. AP axial (Towne method)
b. Lateral
c. SMV
d. PA

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 346

 

  1. If a patient has received a blow to the right side of the skull about 2 inches above the ear, which of the following demonstrates the possible injury?
a. AP axial (Towne method) and SMV projections
b. PA axial (Caldwell method) and SMV projections
c. PA projection and lateral projection, right side of skull resting on the table
d. PA projection and lateral projection, left side of skull resting on the table

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 365

 

  1. The patient is in a prone, oblique position with the midsagittal plane of the head parallel to the IR and the interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR. The CR is directed perpendicular to enter 2 inches superior to the EAM. What projection of the cranium is demonstrated on the radiograph?
a. Lateral
b. AP axial (Towne method)
c. PA axial (Caldwell method)
d. PA

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 349

 

  1. The patient is positioned supine with the midsagittal plane and OML perpendicular to the IR. The CR is angled 30 degrees caudal and enters MSP at approximately 2.5 inches superior to the glabella. What projection is imaged on the radiograph?
a. Lateral
b. PA axial (Caldwell method)
c. PA
d. AP axial (Towne method)

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 351

 

  1. Which of the following are disadvantages of an AP projection of the cranium as compared with a PA projection?
  2. Cannot be used on injured patients
  3. Increased magnification of anterior anatomy
  4. Increased radiation dose to eyes
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 350

 

  1. Which of the following demonstrates the structures of the cranial base?
a. Lateral
b. PA axial
c. SMV
d. PA

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 354

 

  1. What cranial structures are best demonstrated by the SMV projection?
a. The frontal bone and sinuses
b. The cranial base
c. The parietal bones
d. The maxillary sinuses

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 353

 

  1. A lateral projection of the face using detail screens tabletop (nongrid) is used to demonstrate the:
a. mandible.
b. zygoma.
c. orbits.
d. nasal bones.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 359

 

  1. Which projection of the facial bones requires the CR to exit the acanthion?
a. AP axial (Towne method)
b. PA axial (Caldwell method)
c. Lateral
d. Parietoacanthial (Waters method)

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 356

 

  1. What is the purpose of performing sinus radiography with the patient in the upright position?
a. To demonstrate air/fluid levels
b. For ease of patient positioning
c. To prevent superimposition of the cranial structures on the paranasal sinuses
d. Sinus radiography does not have to be performed with the patient upright.

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 363

 

  1. When the patient is supine, the midsagittal plane of the skull is perpendicular to the IR, the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the IR, and the central ray is angled 30 degrees caudad, the resulting radiograph demonstrates the:
a. frontal bone.
b. temporal bones.
c. posterior parietal bones and the occipital bone.
d. maxillary sinuses.

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 348

 

  1. Which facial bones are demonstrated on the PA axial projection (Caldwell method)?
a. Zygoma and maxilla
b. Orbits and zygoma
c. Nasal bones and orbits
d. Mandible and maxilla

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 350

 

  1. Which paranasal sinuses are best demonstrated on the PA axial projection (Caldwell method)?
  2. Maxillary
  3. Frontal
  4. Ethmoid
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 354

 

  1. Which of the following projections demonstrates the sphenoid sinus?
a. Parietoacanthial (Waters method)
b. Lateral
c. AP axial (Towne method)
d. PA axial (Caldwell method)

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 363

 

  1. Which paranasal sinuses are demonstrated by the parietoacanthial projection (Waters method)?
  2. Maxillary
  3. Frontal
  4. Ethmoid
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 363

 

  1. Which projection best demonstrates the maxillary sinuses?
a. Parietoacanthial (Waters method)
b. SMV
c. PA axial (Caldwell method)
d. AP axial (Towne method)

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 363

 

  1. Which paranasal sinuses are demonstrated by the lateral projection?
  2. Sphenoid
  3. Frontal
  4. Ethmoid
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 349

 

  1. Which paranasal sinuses are demonstrated by the SMV projection?
  2. Sphenoid
  3. Ethmoid
  4. Maxillary
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 354

 

  1. Which projection demonstrates all of the paranasal sinuses?
a. PA axial (Caldwell method)
b. Parietoacanthial (Waters method)
c. Lateral
d. SMV

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 363

 

  1. What is the proper CR angle and direction for the axiolateral projection of the mandible when MSP of the head is angled 15 degrees toward the IR?
a. 10 degrees cephalic
b. 10 degrees caudal
c. 25 degrees cephalic
d. 25 degrees caudal

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 361

 

  1. When the right and left halves of the skull do not appear symmetrical on a PA or AP projection, this is a sign that the:
a. neck is extended too much.
b. neck is flexed too much.
c. sagittal plane is not perpendicular to the IR.
d. central ray is not angled correctly.

 

 

ANS:  C                    REF:   Page 345

 

  1. A blow-out fracture involves the:
a. occipital bone.
b. mandible.
c. nasal bones.
d. floor of the orbit.

 

 

ANS:  D                    REF:   Page 365

 

  1. Which facial bone(s) is (are) most frequently fractured?
a. Nasal bones
b. Zygomatic arches
c. Orbits
d. Mandible

 

 

ANS:  A                    REF:   Page 365

 

  1. Which facial bone often sustains fractures in pairs?
a. Maxilla
b. Mandible
c. Zygoma
d. Vomer

 

 

ANS:  B                    REF:   Page 365

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