Psychology 12th Edition by David G. Myers – Test Bank


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1. What are the three major issues in developmental psychology? Provide an example of each.



2. Design an experiment to show how the process of habituation can help us to demonstrate human infants’ capacities for perception, learning, and memory.



3. Three-year-old Dimitri frequently takes other children’s toys from them, showing little concern for their feelings, even when they cry. When he does this, his mother tells him to “imagine how other kids feel when they lose their toys.” Use your understanding of cognitive development to explain Dimitri’s antisocial behavior. Why is his mother’s comment unlikely to influence his behavior? How would you encourage Dimitri to stop behaving this way?



4. Mrs. Kaufman spends a lot of time stroking, cuddling, and rocking her infant son and seems to be highly aware of the baby’s actions and needs. Mr. Kaufman worries that his wife’s interactions with the baby may eventually lead the child to (a) cry easily when frustrated, (b) fearfully cling to his mother, (c) become unfriendly toward other people, and (d) become withdrawn and uninterested in his surroundings. Describe research on social development that supports or refutes each of the father’s concerns.



5. Mr. and Mrs. McDonald believe in the importance of stern discipline; they impose strict rules which they expect their children to obey without question. They penalize misbehavior harshly, frequently with a spanking. Mr. and Mrs. Reynolds use milder forms of punishment to enforce their rules. They also have regular family meetings in which their children help them to establish household rules and penalties for breaking them. What do you see as the advantages and disadvantages of these two disciplinary approaches? Explain the reasons for your answer.



6. Mr. Firkin is a shy and reserved person, who often feels tense and nervous. In therapy, he recalled that he had an unhappy childhood, feeling that he did not receive enough attention from his mother and resenting the conservative family discipline and lifestyle enforced by his father. He blames both parents for his current anxiety, unhappiness, and loneliness. In light of your understanding of the interactive influences of nature and nurture, explain why Mr. Firkin’s complaints about his parents may be somewhat unfair and unhelpful.



7. Compare and contrast the consequences of early pubertal development for both males and females.



8. Thirteen-year-old Ryan has begun to challenge many of his parents’ values and to express his own set of highly idealistic standards. Compare and contrast the explanations for Ryan’s behavior that would be given by Kohlberg and by Erikson.



9. Explain the concept of social identity and provide an example.



10. Define emerging adulthood, and explain why psychologists decided to make it a separate developmental stage. How do views of emerging adulthood as a stage in development vary across cultures?



11. Describe the cognitive decline that occurs with aging, and explain how brain changes are related to progressive cognitive decline.



12. At the age of 30, Angela hesitates to commit herself to a lifelong marital relationship, primarily because she believes that the personalities of marriage partners often change in surprising and unpredictable ways during their lifetimes. What professional advice could you appropriately provide to Angela in light of the research on marital happiness, life satisfaction, and adult development?




Answer Key







1. Samantha has to select a college major. She has always wondered about what makes people who they are and how people change over time. Based on this, she might be interested in
  A) clinical psychology.
  B) social psychology.
  C) nursing.
  D) developmental psychology.



2. Which of the following is NOT a major issue in developmental psychology?
  A) nature and nurture
  B) continuity and stages
  C) predictability and unpredictability
  D) stability and change



3. Dr. Smith has devoted his career to investigating the influence of genetic and environmental factors on developmental processes. Which major issue in developmental psychology is he most interested in?
  A) nature and nurture
  B) continuity and stages
  C) predictability and unpredictability
  D) stability and change



4. Developmental psychologists study physical, cognitive, and ________ changes throughout the human life span.
  A) zygotic
  B) embryonic
  C) genetic
  D) social



5. Dr. Birkin’s major research interest is the development of motor skills in children. It is most likely that Dr. Birkin is a ________ psychologist.
  A) cognitive
  B) developmental
  C) biological
  D) psychodynamic



6. Efforts to identify the interactive influences of inherited personality traits and culturally prescribed educational practices on the intellectual development of children is most central to the major issue of
  A) stability and change.
  B) extraversion and introversion.
  C) continuity and stages.
  D) nature and nurture.



7. One of the three major concerns of developmental psychology involves a focus on
  A) conception and prenatal development.
  B) continuity and stages.
  C) embryonic and fetal development.
  D) individualism and habituation.



8. Distinguishing between very gradual and very abrupt developmental changes over the life span is most central to the major issue of
  A) prenatal and postnatal development.
  B) stability and change.
  C) continuity and stages.
  D) nature and nurture.



9. Mary believes that cognitive development is a matter of gradual and almost imperceptible changes over time. Her viewpoint is most directly relevant to the issue of
  A) nature and nurture.
  B) genes and environment.
  C) continuity and stages.
  D) stability and change.



10. Psychologists who view the developmental process as a sequence of distinct stages generally believe that ________ is(are) the same for everyone.
  A) both the order and the timing of the stages
  B) the order but not the timing of the stages
  C) the timing but not the order of the stages
  D) neither the order nor the timing of the stages



11. Theories of human development have been most susceptible to criticism for overemphasizing
  A) discrete age-linked stages.
  B) the interaction of nature and nurture.
  C) maturation during adolescent development.
  D) cognitive changes during adulthood development.



12. A belief that adult personality is completely determined in early childhood would be most relevant to the issue of
  A) stability and change.
  B) nature and nurture.
  C) cognition and morality.
  D) conception and prenatal development.



13. Which of the following people is most likely to be convicted of a violent crime during emerging adulthood?
  A) Mary, who was an introvert as a child
  B) Brandon, who was an extravert as a child
  C) Suan, who has always been a loner
  D) Casey, who exhibited conduct problems as a child



14. Which of the following people is most likely to enjoy an enduring marriage?
  A) Zach, who smiled all the time as a child
  B) Michael, who was an introvert as a child
  C) Casey, who exhibited conduct problems as a teen
  D) Christina, who started dating when she was 16 years old



15. A child’s temperament is likely to be
  A) difficult to observe.
  B) stable over time.
  C) a product of parenting style.
  D) a reflection of his or her thinking.



16. Questions about whether anxious children will grow up to be fearful or relaxed adults most directly highlight the issue of
  A) continuity and stages.
  B) stability and change.
  C) identity and temperament.
  D) nature and nurture.



17. Which of the following is the best conclusion regarding the issue of stability and change in development?
  A) Stability is more likely to explain development.
  B) Change is more likely to explain development.
  C) Both stability and change can be used to explain development.
  D) Neither stability nor change helps explain development.



18. The fact that many happy and well-adjusted adults were once rebellious and unhappy as adolescents is most relevant to the issue of
  A) continuity and stages.
  B) childhood and life-span development.
  C) stability and change.
  D) habituation and attention.



19. As compared with the production of egg cells, sperm cell production
  A) begins later in life.
  B) involves a jellylike outer covering.
  C) begins earlier in life.
  D) occurs at a slower rate.



20. Human females begin forming all the eggs they will ever have during
  A) conception.
  B) prenatal development.
  C) early childhood.
  D) puberty.



21. Human sperm cells ________ than egg cells.
  A) are larger
  B) contain more genes
  C) are smaller
  D) contain fewer genes



22. A zygote is a(n)
  A) agent that can harm prenatal development.
  B) developing organism from about 2 weeks after fertilization through the second month.
  C) developing organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth.
  D) fertilized egg.



23. During the course of successful prenatal development, a human organism begins as a(n)
  A) zygote and finally develops into an embryo.
  B) embryo and finally develops into a fetus.
  C) zygote and finally develops into a fetus.
  D) fetus and finally develops into an embryo.



24. Cell division and differentiation begin during the ________ stage of prenatal development.
  A) fetal
  B) placental
  C) zygotic
  D) embryonic



25. The zygote’s inner cells
  A) form the placenta.
  B) become the embryo.
  C) become the heart of the organism.
  D) attach to the uterine wall.



26. The placenta develops from the outer cells of the
  A) ovary.
  B) zygote.
  C) fetus.
  D) embryo.



27. The organ that transfers nutrients and oxygen from mother to embryo is called the
  A) ovary.
  B) zygote.
  C) placenta.
  D) teratogen.



28. When a placenta is first developed, it transfers nutrients and oxygen from mother to
  A) egg cell.
  B) fetus.
  C) embryo.
  D) zygote.



29. During a routine prenatal exam, Janet’s obstetrician detected the heartbeat of her future baby. The earliest possible period of development medically indicated at this point would be the ________ period.
  A) embryonic
  B) zygotic
  C) fetal
  D) epigenetic



30. The fetus is the
  A) agent that can harm prenatal development.
  B) developing organism from about 2 weeks after fertilization through the second month.
  C) developing organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth.
  D) fertilized egg.



31. Immediately after birth, newborns prefer their own mother’s voice to another woman’s voice. This is best explained by the interaction of heredity and environment that takes place inside the
  A) mother’s egg.
  B) placenta.
  C) teratogen.
  D) uterus.



32. A preference for our mother’s voice over our father’s voice has been detected
  A) during embryonic development.
  B) immediately after birth.
  C) one week after birth.
  D) one month after birth.



33. Day-old American and Swedish newborns were observed to pause more in their pacifier sucking when listening to
  A) familiar vowels from their mother’s language.
  B) unfamiliar words from their father’s language.
  C) the voice sounds of a sibling.
  D) musical instruments over a radio.



34. Just after birth, the cries of newborns typically bear the intonation of
  A) identity.
  B) an epigenetic effect.
  C) habituation.
  D) their mother’s native language.



35. A teratogen is a(n)
  A) fertilized egg that undergoes rapid cell division.
  B) unborn child with one or more physical defects or abnormalities.
  C) chromosomal abnormality.
  D) substance that can cross the placental barrier and harm an unborn child.



36. Melissa suffered a severe viral infection during her fourth month of pregnancy that caused her baby to be born with an abnormal heart valve. In this instance, the virus was clearly a
  A) stress hormone.
  B) digestive enzyme.
  C) teratogen.
  D) zygote.



37. One of the most consistently damaging teratogens is
  A) blood.
  B) oxygen.
  C) testosterone.
  D) alcohol.



38. When pregnant rats drink alcohol, their young offspring later display a(n)
  A) immunity to fetal alcohol syndrome.
  B) aversion to the taste of alcohol.
  C) unusually rapid development of bladder control.
  D) liking for the taste and odor of alcohol.



39. The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome are most likely to include
  A) visual impairments.
  B) mental abnormalities.
  C) habituation.
  D) hearing problems.



40. Alcohol may cause fetal damage by leaving chemical marks on DNA that switch genes abnormally on or off. This best illustrates
  A) habituation.
  B) reflexive rooting.
  C) an epigenetic effect.
  D) neural networking.



41. If a pregnant woman experiences chronic and extreme stress, the stress hormones flooding her body may damage the developing fetus. In this situation, the mother’s stress hormones are most clearly
  A) enzymes.
  B) neural networks.
  C) placentas.
  D) teratogens.



42. Madison drank contaminated water, which contained toxic molecules that blocked the expression of some of her genes. As a result, she is now highly allergic to certain foods. This best illustrates the impact of
  A) digestive enzymes.
  B) stress hormones.
  C) epigenetic marks.
  D) natural selection.



43. A reflex refers to
  A) decreasing responsiveness to repeated stimulation.
  B) an epigenetic effect that is observable at birth.
  C) an automatic response to sensory stimulation.
  D) the consistency of temperament over time.



44. Babies are born with several reflexes for getting food. One of these is to
  A) withdraw a limb to escape pain.
  B) turn the head away from a cloth placed over the face.
  C) open the mouth in search of a nipple when touched on the cheek.
  D) look longer at face-like images.



45. While holding her friend’s newborn, Brenda caresses the baby’s cheek. The baby turns her head toward the touch and opens her mouth. The baby will next
  A) suck on Brenda’s hand.
  B) extend his or her arms and legs.
  C) cry.
  D) root for a nipple.



46. Mr. Hersch triggered a rooting reflex in his infant son by touching him on the
  A) foot.
  B) knee.
  C) arm.
  D) cheek.



47. An infant’s tendency to automatically grasp objects placed in his or her hands best illustrates
  A) object permanence.
  B) insecure attachment.
  C) a reflex response.
  D) basic trust.



48. Four weeks after having been exposed to a vibrating, honking device placed on its mother’s abdomen, a fetus demonstrates
  A) habituation.
  B) a stress response.
  C) an epigenetic effect.
  D) impulsiveness.



49. Habituation refers to the
  A) awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived.
  B) decreasing responsiveness to a stimulus to which one is repeatedly exposed.
  C) adjustment of current thinking to make sense of new information.
  D) tendency to gaze longer at face-like images.



50. With repeated presentations of a bright red toy, 2-month-old Anita began to respond with less visual attention to the toy. Her decreasing responsiveness best illustrates
  A) an epigenetic effect.
  B) a reflex.
  C) habituation.
  D) fetal alcohol syndrome.



51. Infant visual preferences have been discovered by assessing infants’
  A) reflexes.
  B) habituation.
  C) genetic inheritance.
  D) stage of development.



52. Newborns have been observed to show the greatest visual interest in a
  A) rectangular shape.
  B) circular shape.
  C) bull’s-eye pattern.
  D) face-like image.



53. When placed between a gauze breast pad from their nursing mother’s bra and one from another nursing mother, week-old nursing babies are likely to
  A) move their eyes in a visual search for their mother.
  B) turn their head toward the smell of their mother’s pad.
  C) open their mouth in a vigorous search for a nipple.
  D) habituate more quickly to the smell of the pad taken from another nursing mother.



54. French toddlers preferred playing with chamomile-scented toys if
  A) they had never before smelled chamomile.
  B) they had been diagnosed with fetal alcohol syndrome.
  C) their mothers had once used a skin balm with a chamomile scent.
  D) their fathers were devoted chamomile tea drinkers.



55. The human tendency to stand before walking is an illustration of
  A) maturation.
  B) change.
  C) stability.
  D) nurture.



56. The human tendency to use nouns before adjectives is an illustration of
  A) maturation.
  B) change.
  C) stability.
  D) nurture.



57. Maturation refers to
  A) the acquisition of socially acceptable behaviors.
  B) biological growth processes that are relatively uninfluenced by experience.
  C) any learned behavior patterns that accompany personal growth and development.
  D) the physical and sexual development of childhood.



58. Miguel, the youngest child of a high school athletic director, was able to roll over at 3 months, crawl at 6 months, and walk at 12 months. This ordered sequence of motor development was largely due to
  A) the baby’s temperament.
  B) maturation.
  C) responsive parenting.
  D) imprinting.



59. Maturation is to education as ________ is to ________.
  A) accommodation; assimilation
  B) nature; nurture
  C) conservation; object permanence
  D) environment; learning



60. The brain’s development of increasingly complex neural networks during infancy is made possible by the formation of billions of new
  A) schemas.
  B) secure attachments.
  C) synapses.
  D) epigenetic marks.



61. From ages 3 to 6, the brain’s neural networks are sprouting most rapidly in the
  A) frontal lobes.
  B) hypothalamus.
  C) cerebellum.
  D) brainstem.



62. From ages 3 to 6, your ability to control your attention and make plans developed rapidly thanks to rapid brain growth in the
  A) temporal lobes.
  B) frontal lobes.
  C) occipital lobes.
  D) parietal lobes.



63. The parts of the brain linked to thinking, memory, and language, which are the last to fully develop, are known as the
  A) reticular formation.
  B) limbic system.
  C) association areas.
  D) somatosensory cortex.



64. When 10-year-old children repeatedly practice the precise motor skills involved in texting, the cortical areas directly controlling these motor skills are likely to develop more complex
  A) imprinting.
  B) neural networks.
  C) object permanence.
  D) formal operations.



65. The association areas are the last cortical areas to fully develop their
  A) schemas.
  B) theory of mind.
  C) neural networks.
  D) object permanence.



66. The brain’s association areas are linked with
  A) speech, agility, and coordination.
  B) temperament and attachment.
  C) assimilation and accommodation.
  D) thinking, memory, and language.



67. A failure to practice important motor skills can result in a loss of agility because unused neural connections
  A) become insecurely attached.
  B) assimilate.
  C) accommodate.
  D) are pruned.



68. Our readiness to learn walking at about age 1 is created by
  A) accommodation.
  B) assimilation.
  C) conservation.
  D) maturation.



69. The sequence of infant motor development, which is universal, is
  A) crawl, sit, walk, run.
  B) crawl, walk, run, sit.
  C) sit, crawl, walk, run.
  D) crawl, walk, sit, run.



70. Infant motor development is typically characterized by individual differences in ________ of the major developmental milestones.
  A) both the sequence and the age-related timing
  B) the sequence but not the age-related timing
  C) the age-related timing but not the sequence
  D) neither the sequence nor the age-related timing



71. Shelly’s baby is 12 months old and is not walking yet. What should you say to her parents?
  A) “Ninety percent of babies walk by the time they are 12 months old. Perhaps you should have the pediatrician check on her motor-skill development.”
  B) “Perhaps her fine motor skills are behind schedule.”
  C) “This is perfectly normal. While 50 percent of babies walk by the time they are 12 months old, many don’t until they are 15 months old.
  D) “Don’t worry about it! Only 25 percent of babies walk by the time they are 12 months old.”



72. The concept of maturation is most relevant to understanding the absence of
  A) secure attachments among infants.
  B) bladder control among 2-year-olds.
  C) self-esteem among kindergarten students.
  D) moral behavior among adolescents.



73. Putting babies to sleep on their backs to reduce the risk of crib death has been associated with a slight delay in children’s
  A) walking.
  B) crawling.
  C) bladder control.
  D) stranger anxiety.



74. Our earliest conscious memories seldom predate our fourth birthday. This best illustrates
  A) egocentrism.
  B) imprinting.
  C) assimilation.
  D) infantile amnesia.



75. Three-year-olds who experienced a fire evacuation caused by a burning popcorn maker were unable to remember the cause of this vivid event when they were 10-year-olds. This best illustrates
  A) accommodation.
  B) assimilation.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) a critical period.



76. Five-year-old Kevin can’t remember any events from a family vacation in Hawaii when he was 2-1/2 years old. This best illustrates
  A) stranger anxiety.
  B) an insecure attachment.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) egocentrism.



77. Conscious recall of lasting memories most directly depends on the childhood maturation of the
  A) hypothalamus.
  B) amygdala.
  C) hippocampus.
  D) thalamus.



78. Four-year-old Karen can’t remember anything of the first few months of her life. This is best explained by the fact that
  A) the trauma of birth interferes with the early formation of memories.
  B) most brain cells do not yet exist at the time of birth.
  C) experiences shortly after birth are a meaningless blur of darkness and light.
  D) the hippocampus and frontal lobes are immature during early infancy.



79. Babies as young as ________ month(s) learned that their own kicking moves a mobile; and they retained that learning without later practice for as long as ________ month(s).
  A) 1; 1
  B) 3; 1
  C) 1; 6
  D) 3; 12



80. One study found that English-speaking adults could relearn subtle sound contrasts in the Hindi or Zulu they had spoken as children even though they had no ________ the language they had once spoken.
  A) personal curiosity about
  B) conscious memory of
  C) basic trust regarding
  D) schemas associated with



81. Cognition refers to
  A) an emotional tie linking one person with another.
  B) the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating.
  C) any process that facilitates the physical development of the brain.
  D) any process of change that accompanies maturation.



82. Which psychologist was most influential in shaping our understanding of cognitive development?
  A) Konrad Lorenz
  B) Jean Piaget
  C) Sigmund Freud
  D) Erik Erikson



83. Piaget was convinced that the mind of a child
  A) is like a blank slate at birth.
  B) is not heavily influenced by maturation.
  C) develops through a series of stages.
  D) is heavily dependent on the child’s personality.



84. According to Piaget, schemas are
  A) fixed sequences of cognitive developmental stages.
  B) children’s ways of coming to terms with their sexuality.
  C) people’s conceptual frameworks for understanding their experiences.
  D) problem-solving strategies that are typically not developed until the formal operational stage.



85. Little Emma’s belief that food pushed over the edge of a table will fall to the floor below best illustrates
  A) an epigenetic mark.
  B) a critical period.
  C) a schema.
  D) an insecure attachment.



86. Interpreting new experiences in terms of existing schemas is called
  A) egocentrism.
  B) assimilation.
  C) imprinting.
  D) accommodation.



87. The first time that 4-year-old Sarah saw her older brother play a flute, she thought it was simply a large whistle. Sarah’s initial understanding of the flute best illustrates the process of
  A) assimilation.
  B) conservation.
  C) accommodation.
  D) maturation.



88. Incorporating new information into existing theories is to ________ as modifying existing theories in light of new information is to ________.
  A) conservation; egocentrism
  B) imprinting; maturation
  C) sensorimotor stage; preoperational stage
  D) assimilation; accommodation



89. According to Piaget, accommodation refers to
  A) parental efforts to include new children in the existing family structure.
  B) incorporating new experiences into existing schemas.
  C) developmental changes in a child’s behavior that facilitate social acceptance by family and peers.
  D) adjusting current schemas in order to make sense of new experiences.



90. Nageeb thought all nurses were young females until a middle-aged male nurse took care of him. Nageeb’s altered conception of a “nurse” illustrates the process of
  A) conservation.
  B) assimilation.
  C) accommodation.
  D) attachment.



91. Which of the following is the correct order of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?
  A) preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational, sensorimotor
  B) sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, concrete operational
  C) sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
  D) preoperational, sensorimotor, concrete operational, formal operational



92. Olivia understands her world primarily by grasping and sucking easily available objects. Olivia is clearly in Piaget’s ________ stage.
  A) preoperational
  B) concrete operational
  C) sensorimotor
  D) formal operational



93. Object permanence is the understanding that
  A) developmental stages occur in a predictable sequence.
  B) biological growth processes enable orderly development.
  C) things continue to exist even when they are not perceived.
  D) the mass and volume of objects remain the same despite changes in their form.



94. During which of Piaget’s stages does a person develop an awareness that things continue to exist even when they are not perceived?
  A) sensorimotor
  B) preoperational
  C) concrete operational
  D) formal operational



95. When Tommy’s mother hides his favorite toy under a blanket, he acts as though it no longer exists and makes no attempt to retrieve it. Tommy is clearly near the beginning of Piaget’s ________ stage.
  A) sensorimotor
  B) formal operational
  C) concrete operational
  D) preoperational



96. Infants stare longer than usual at unexpected events such as a ball stopping in midair. This suggests that Piaget
  A) overestimated the continuity of cognitive development.
  B) underestimated the cognitive capacities of infants.
  C) overestimated the impact of culture on infant intelligence.
  D) underestimated the impact of object permanence on infant attachment.



97. When researcher Karen Wynn showed 5-month-old infants a numerically impossible outcome, the infants
  A) stared longer at the outcome.
  B) displayed rapid imprinting.
  C) demonstrated an obvious lack of object permanence.
  D) showed signs of formal operational reasoning.



98. Infants accustomed to a puppet jumping three times on stage show surprise if the puppet jumps only twice. This suggests that Piaget
  A) overestimated the continuity of cognitive development.
  B) underestimated the cognitive capacities of infants.
  C) overestimated the impact of culture on infant intelligence.
  D) underestimated the impact of object permanence on infant attachment.



99. According to Piaget, a child can represent things with words and images but cannot reason with logic during the ________ stage.
  A) concrete operational
  B) sensorimotor
  C) formal operational
  D) preoperational



100. According to Piaget, imagining an action and mentally reversing it would be an example of a
  A) pruning process.
  B) critical period.
  C) mental operation.
  D) sensorimotor action.



101. If children cannot grasp the principle of conservation, they are unable to
  A) deal with the discipline of toilet training.
  B) see things from the point of view of another person.
  C) recognize that the quantity of a substance remains the same despite changes in its shape.
  D) retain earlier schemas when confronted by new experiences.



102. Mrs. Pearson cut Judy’s hot dog into eight pieces and Sylvia’s into six pieces. Sylvia cried because she felt she wasn’t getting as much hot dog as Judy. Piaget would say that Sylvia doesn’t understand the principle of
  A) object permanence.
  B) conservation.
  C) egocentrism.
  D) accommodation.



103. Three-year-olds were shown a model of a room with a miniature stuffed dog placed behind a miniature couch. By using the model to locate an actual stuffed dog behind a couch in a real room, the children demonstrated their capacity for
  A) egocentrism.
  B) symbolic thinking.
  C) conservation.
  D) concrete operational reasoning.



104. Using a large box to symbolize a boat and brooms to symbolize fishing poles, Jerry and Tommy imagined themselves catching fish out of a lake. The children are most clearly demonstrating
  A) conservation.
  B) theory of mind.
  C) pretend play.
  D) egocentrism.



105. The egocentrism of preschoolers was most strongly emphasized by
  A) the Harlows’ attachment theory.
  B) Baumrind’s parenting style theory.
  C) Piaget’s cognitive development theory.
  D) Erikson’s psychosocial development theory.



106. According to Piaget, egocentrism refers to
  A) a sensorimotor need for self-stimulation, as evidenced by thumb sucking.
  B) young children’s exaggerated interest in themselves and their own pleasure.
  C) the difficulty perceiving things from another person’s point of view.
  D) a failure to realize that things continue to exist even when they are not visible.



107. Four-year-old Jennifer mistakenly believes that her mother would like to receive a toy doll as a Christmas present. This best illustrates Piaget’s concept of
  A) accommodation.
  B) object permanence.
  C) conservation.
  D) egocentrism.



108. Brenda asked her toddler to “show Mommy your art.” Her toddler then held up the picture facing her own eyes. This is an example of
  A) egocentric behavior.
  B) pretend play.
  C) conservatism.
  D) object permanence.



109. John is 3 years old and is playing hide and seek with his older brothers and sisters. When it is his turn to hide, he puts his hands over his eyes. He is demonstrating
  A) egocentric behavior.
  B) pretend play.
  C) conservatism.
  D) object permanence.



110. Gabrielle is 4 years old and is standing in front of the TV while watching a football game. His father is also trying to watch, but Gabrielle is standing right in front of him. Gabrielle doesn’t realize that he is blocking his father’s view. This is an example of
  A) egocentric behavior.
  B) pretend play.
  C) conservatism.
  D) object permanence.



111. Incorrectly assuming that something that is clearly understood by us will also be clearly understood by others illustrates
  A) basic trust.
  B) the curse of knowledge.
  C) object permanence.
  D) imprinting.



112. Ideas about one’s own and others’ feelings, perceptions, and thoughts, along with the behaviors these might predict, are said to constitute
  A) formal operational thinking.
  B) a theory of mind.
  C) the principle of conservation.
  D) a secure attachment.



113. Preschoolers’ acquisition of a theory of mind suggests that Piaget overestimated young children’s
  A) egocentrism.
  B) infantile amnesia.
  C) stranger anxiety.
  D) sense of object permanence.



114. Five-year-olds who were surprised to discover that a Band-Aid box contained pencils were able to anticipate their friend’s false belief about the contents of the box. This best illustrates that the children had developed a
  A) secure attachment.
  B) conventional morality.
  C) theory of mind.
  D) concept of conservation.



115. Chloe can clearly sense when her sister’s teasing is intended to be friendly fun or a hostile put-down. This best illustrates that Chloe has developed a(n)
  A) sense of object permanence.
  B) insecure attachment.
  C) concept of conservation.
  D) theory of mind.



116. According to Piaget, the ability to think logically about events first develops during the ________ stage.
  A) sensorimotor
  B) formal operational
  C) concrete operational
  D) preoperational



117. According to Piaget, children come to understand that the volume of a substance remains constant despite changes in its shape during the ________ stage.
  A) sensorimotor
  B) preoperational
  C) concrete operational
  D) formal operational



118. Cameron counted a total of eight blocks stacked in a single pile of blocks. When the pile was knocked over and the blocks scattered in front of him, he knew that there were still eight blocks. This indicates that Cameron has reached the ________ stage of development.
  A) sensorimotor
  B) concrete operational
  C) preoperational
  D) formal operational



119. According to Piaget, egocentrism is to conservation as the ________ stage is to the ________ stage.
  A) concrete operational; preoperational
  B) sensorimotor; preoperational
  C) concrete operational; formal operational
  D) preoperational; concrete operational



120. According to Piaget, a person first comprehends that division is the reverse of multiplication during the ________ stage.
  A) preoperational
  B) concrete operational
  C) formal operational
  D) sensorimotor



121. According to Piaget, during the formal operational stage people begin to
  A) reason abstractly.
  B) adhere to social norms.
  C) distinguish between helpful and harmful behaviors.
  D) experience object permanence.



122. Specific accomplishments during the concrete operational stage of cognitive development include
  A) logic and moral reasoning.
  B) object permanence and stranger anxiety.
  C) pretend play and egocentrism.
  D) conservation and mathematical transformations.



123. Lee is 12 years old. Which specific accomplishments are characteristic of children his age?
  A) logic and moral reasoning
  B) object permanence and stranger anxiety
  C) pretend play and egocentrism
  D) conservation and mathematical transformations



124. If Piaget pictured the developing child as a young ________, Vygotsky pictured the developing child as a young ________.
  A) empathizer; systemizer
  B) postoperational child; preoperational child
  C) scientist; apprentice
  D) athlete; artist



125. Vygotsky suggested that new words provide a temporary ________ from which children can step to higher levels of thinking
  A) preoperational stage
  B) neural network
  C) critical period
  D) scaffold



126. The Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky suggested that children’s ability to solve problems is enhanced by
  A) basic trust.
  B) inner speech.
  C) conservation.
  D) imprinting.



127. According to Vygotsky, parents who say “No, no!” when pulling a child’s hand away from a cake are giving the child a tool for
  A) imprinting.
  B) self-control.
  C) object permanence.
  D) a secure attachment.



128. Six-year-old Ashley effectively restrained herself from touching a burning candle by inaudibly whispering the word “hot.” The advantage of her verbal self-control tactic was most clearly highlighted by
  A) Erik Erikson.
  B) Lev Vygotsky.
  C) Jean Piaget.
  D) Harry Harlow.



129. Four-year-olds are not completely egocentric, and 5-year-olds can exhibit some understanding of conservation. This indicates that Piaget may have underestimated the
  A) importance of critical periods in early life.
  B) role of motivation in cognitive development.
  C) continuity of cognitive development.
  D) importance of early attachment experiences.



130. A disorder that appears in childhood involving deficiencies in communication, rigidly fixated interests, and repetitive behaviors is known as
  A) stranger anxiety.
  B) autism spectrum disorder.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) an insecure attachment.



131. Poor communication among brain regions that normally work together to enable one to take another’s viewpoint is most clearly linked with
  A) infantile amnesia.
  B) the startle reflex.
  C) epigenetic marks.
  D) autism spectrum disorder.



132. An impaired theory of mind is most closely associated with
  A) infantile amnesia.
  B) concrete operational thought.
  C) the concept of conservation.
  D) autism spectrum disorder.



133. Recognizing whether someone’s facial expression is a happy smile or a self-satisfied smirk is especially difficult for those with
  A) autism spectrum disorder.
  B) infantile amnesia.
  C) a secure attachment.
  D) high oxytocin levels.



134. Zach has difficulty understanding whether a friend’s pouting facial expression signals sadness or affection. Zach’s difficulty would be especially common for those with
  A) a secure attachment.
  B) stranger anxiety.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) autism spectrum disorder.



135. From age 2 months on, as other children spend more and more time looking in others’ eyes, those who later develop ________ do so less and less.
  A) stranger anxiety
  B) infantile amnesia
  C) mumps or measles
  D) autism spectrum disorder



136. Based on a fraudulent 1998 study, some parents were misled into thinking that the childhood MMR vaccine increased the risk of
  A) childhood obesity.
  B) autism spectrum disorder.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) stranger anxiety.



137. Psychologist Simon Baron-Cohen believes that more boys than girls suffer from ASD because they are “systemizers,” that is, they
  A) are better able to read people’s emotions.
  B) have one exceptional talent.
  C) understand things in terms of rules or laws.
  D) are more securely attached.



138. Psychologist Simon Baron-Cohen has proposed that autism spectrum disorder is indicative of an inborn
  A) stranger anxiety.
  B) pruning process.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) male systemizing tendency.



139. Simon Baron-Cohen has suggested that ASD affects more boys than girls because girls are more naturally disposed to be _________, whereas boys are more naturally disposed to be _________.
  A) trusting; self-aware
  B) confrontive; coercive
  C) empathizers; systemizers
  D) idealists; realists



140. The connectivity of brain regions that facilitates the integration of visual and emotional information appears to be deficient among those with
  A) stranger anxiety.
  B) infantile amnesia.
  C) autism spectrum disorder.
  D) schemas for familiar faces.



141. When people with autism spectrum disorder watch another person’s hand movements, they display less-than-normal signs of
  A) insecure attachment.
  B) egocentrism.
  C) mirroring activity.
  D) stranger anxiety.



142. Animations that grafted emotion-conveying faces onto toy trains have been developed to alleviate symptoms of
  A) stranger anxiety.
  B) MMR vaccinations.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) autism spectrum disorder.



143. At about 8 months, children become increasingly likely to react to newcomers with tears and distress. This best illustrates
  A) assimilation.
  B) insecure attachment.
  C) egocentrism.
  D) stranger anxiety.



144. Lilianne is beginning to develop a fear of strangers and will reach for her mother when she sees someone who is unfamiliar. It is likely that Lilianne has also just
  A) mastered the principle of conservation.
  B) overcome the limitation of egocentrism.
  C) developed a sense of object permanence.
  D) lost her sense of secure attachment.



145. Infants develop a fear of strangers at about 8 months of age because they can’t assimilate unfamiliar faces into their
  A) schemas.
  B) insecure attachments.
  C) impaired theory of mind.
  D) critical period.



146. The powerful survival impulse that leads infants to seek closeness to their caregivers is called
  A) attachment.
  B) conservation.
  C) egocentrism.
  D) pruning.



147. Little Karen will approach and play with unfamiliar animals only if her mother first reassures her that it is safe to do so. This best illustrates the adaptive value of
  A) conservation.
  B) attachment.
  C) egocentrism.
  D) authoritarian parenting.



148. Studies of monkeys raised with artificial mothers suggest that mother-infant emotional bonds result primarily from mothers providing infants with
  A) adequate nourishment.
  B) body contact.
  C) the opportunity to explore.
  D) permissive parenting.



149. The Harlows’ infant monkeys used an artificial cloth mother as a secure base for
  A) conservation.
  B) delay of gratification.
  C) exploration.
  D) object permanence.



150. A critical period is a phase during which
  A) children frequently disobey and resist their parents.
  B) children become able to think hypothetically and reason abstractly.
  C) parents frequently show impatience with a child’s slowness in becoming toilet trained.
  D) exposure to certain experiences is needed for proper development.



151. For many animals, attachments based on contact and ________ need to form during a critical period.
  A) nourishment
  B) maturation
  C) heredity
  D) familiarity



152. Dr. MacGiver believes that children who are not visually stimulated during the first four months of life will never develop normal visual perception. Obviously, Dr. MacGiver believes that this developmental stage is a
  A) concrete operational stage.
  B) critical period.
  C) cognitive schema.
  D) epigenetic mark.



153. Who examined the imprinting of ducklings?
  A) Carolyn Rovee-Collier
  B) Jean Piaget
  C) Konrad Lorenz
  D) Lev Vygotsky



154. The process of imprinting involves the formation of a(n)
  A) attachment.
  B) identity.
  C) epigenetic effect.
  D) theory of mind.



155. Which of the following is an example of imprinting?
  A) A 2-year-old poodle approaches a stranger who calls it.
  B) A 4-year-old boy imitates aggression he sees on television.
  C) A duckling demonstrates attachment to a bouncing ball.
  D) A 3-year-old girl is simultaneously learning two languages.



156. Carol is distressed because post-childbirth complications prevented her from being in close physical contact with her child during its first few hours of life. Carol should be told that
  A) human infants do not have well-defined critical periods for the formation of a mother-infant attachment.
  B) physical contact with her infant immediately after birth would not contribute to the development of mother-infant attachment.
  C) infants should be left physically undisturbed during the first few hours of life so they can rest.
  D) as long as she can breast-feed her baby, no lasting damage will be done.



157. Unlike ducklings, children do not imprint. Their fondness for certain people, however, is fostered by
  A) conservation.
  B) egocentrism.
  C) mere exposure.
  D) infantile amnesia.



158. To assess attachment differences among infants, Mary Ainsworth placed them in a laboratory setting called a
  A) formal operation stage.
  B) secure base.
  C) strange situation.
  D) safe haven.



159. One-year-old Eunice is not overly fearful of strangers but she clearly prefers being held by her mother than by anyone else. Her behavior best illustrates
  A) accommodation.
  B) secure attachment.
  C) conservation.
  D) egocentrism.



160. Infants in a pleasant but strange situation who respond to their mother’s departure with extreme anxiety or to their mother’s return with avoidance are showing signs of
  A) infantile amnesia.
  B) object permanence.
  C) insecure attachment.
  D) egocentrism.



161. Instead of happily exploring the attractive toys in the pediatrician’s waiting room, little Sandra tenaciously clings to her mother’s skirt. Sandra most clearly shows signs of
  A) conservation.
  B) egocentrism.
  C) insecure attachment.
  D) accommodation.



162. Providing children with a safe haven in times of stress contributes most directly to
  A) conservation.
  B) stranger anxiety.
  C) object permanence.
  D) secure attachment.



163. Aaron cried when his mother left him in the infant nursery at church, and he was not reassured or comforted by her return a short while later. Aaron showed signs of
  A) egocentrism.
  B) assimilation.
  C) conservation.
  D) insecure attachment.



164. In a pleasant but unfamiliar setting, infants with a secure maternal attachment are most likely to
  A) act as though their mothers are of little importance to them.
  B) use their mothers as a base from which to explore the new surroundings.
  C) cling to their mothers and ignore the new surroundings.
  D) show hostility when their mothers approach them after a brief absence.



165. Infants in a strange situation who appear not to notice or care about their mother’s departure or return show signs of
  A) anxious attachment.
  B) basic trust.
  C) avoidant attachment.
  D) imprinting.



166. Some mothers feed their infants when they show signs of hunger, whereas others fail to respond predictably to their infants’ demands for food. These different maternal feeding practices are most likely to contribute to differences in infant
  A) accommodation.
  B) attachment.
  C) conservation.
  D) egocentrism.



167. Which of the following factors contributes most positively to the development of secure attachment between human infants and their mothers?
  A) egocentrism
  B) responsive parenting
  C) stranger anxiety
  D) authoritarian discipline



168. A mother who is slow in responding to her infant’s cries of distress is most likely to encourage
  A) conservation.
  B) insecure attachment.
  C) object permanence.
  D) egocentrism.



169. Two-year-old Anna perceives her parents as cold and rejecting. This is most indicative of
  A) conservation.
  B) egocentrism.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) insecure attachment.



170. When placed in strange situations without their artificial mothers, the Harlows’ infant monkeys demonstrated signs of
  A) insecure attachment.
  B) egocentrism.
  C) basic trust.
  D) curiosity.



171. Children’s sense that their parents are trustworthy and dependable is most indicative of
  A) maturation.
  B) accommodation.
  C) secure attachment.
  D) object permanence.



172. Evidence that easy, relaxed infants develop secure attachments more readily than difficult, emotionally intense babies would illustrate the importance of
  A) egocentrism.
  B) temperament.
  C) conservation.
  D) object permanence.



173. A person’s characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity is called their
  A) social identity.
  B) temperament.
  C) maturation level.
  D) schema.



174. Pat is normally very restless and fidgety; Shelly is usually quiet and easygoing. The two children most clearly differ in
  A) maturation.
  B) egocentrism.
  C) temperament.
  D) object permanence.



175. The labels “easy” and “difficult” are used to refer to differences among infants in
  A) maturation.
  B) cognition.
  C) temperament.
  D) attachment.



176. Difficult babies with an intense temperament tend to be
  A) intelligent and imaginative.
  B) irritable and unpredictable.
  C) fearless and assertive.
  D) extraverted and cheerful.



177. Half the mothers of temperamentally difficult infants received personal training in sensitive responding. The other half did not. Those who received this training were more likely than the others to have their 12-month-old babies rated as
  A) empathizers.
  B) systemizers
  C) securely attached.
  D) egocentric.



178. When considering the development of secure attachments, nature is to nurture as ________ is to ________.
  A) secure attachment; imprinting
  B) heredity; maturation
  C) accommodation; assimilation
  D) temperament; responsive parenting



179. In a British study following more than 7000 people from birth to adulthood, those individuals whose fathers were most involved in parenting tended to demonstrate greater
  A) egocentrism.
  B) stranger anxiety.
  C) object permanence.
  D) academic achievement.



180. Children’s anxiety over separation from parents peaks at around ________ months and then gradually declines.
  A) 7
  B) 13
  C) 21
  D) 30



181. Which of the following statements is true?
  A) Compared with fathers in the 1960s, today’s co-parenting fathers are less engaged with their children.
  B) Children have better life outcomes if they are raised by both parents.
  C) Children have better well-being if they are raised by opposite-sex parents, as compared with same-sex parents.
  D) Couples that share housework and child care are more likely to divorce.



182. Marlys is a sensitive, responsive parent who consistently satisfies the needs of Sara, her infant daughter. According to Erikson, Sara is likely to
  A) form a lifelong attitude of basic trust toward the world.
  B) encounter some difficulty in overcoming the limitation of egocentrism.
  C) encounter some difficulty in forming an attachment to her father.
  D) achieve formal operational intelligence more quickly than the average child.



183. At 15 months of age, Justin already strongly senses that he can rely on his father to comfort and protect him. According to Erikson, this most clearly contributes to
  A) egocentrism.
  B) conservation.
  C) object permanence.
  D) basic trust.



184. Many researchers believe that ________ form the foundation of our adult relationships and our comfort with affection and intimacy.
  A) our early attachments
  B) stranger anxiety experiences
  C) human bonds
  D) the strange situation



185. Many researchers believe that adult styles of romantic love correspond with childhood patterns of
  A) accommodation.
  B) attachment.
  C) conservation.
  D) object permanence.



186. Abigail is a freshman in her first semester of college. She moved from her parents’ home to live in residential housing on campus. Thus far, she is adjusting well. What is related to her adjustment?
  A) secure attachment to her parents
  B) close family ties
  C) having friends from high school attending the same college
  D) living on campus



187. Some individuals constantly crave acceptance in romantic relationships but remain highly vigilant and sensitive to any signs of possible rejection. These people are said to demonstrate an insecure
  A) avoidant attachment style.
  B) egocentric attachment style.
  C) anxious attachment style.
  D) preoperational attachment style.



188. Romanian children raised in orphanages with untrained and overworked staff were found to have ________ than found in children assigned to quality foster care settings.
  A) less egocentrism
  B) lower intelligence scores
  C) more secure attachments
  D) greater infantile amnesia



189. Most victims of childhood sexual abuse become normal adults. This best illustrates
  A) egocentrism.
  B) object permanence.
  C) conservation.
  D) resilience.



190. Harlow observed that most monkeys raised in total isolation
  A) were totally apathetic and indifferent to the first monkeys they encountered.
  B) were incapable of mating upon reaching sexual maturity.
  C) showed slower social development but more rapid cognitive development.
  D) showed no lasting adverse effects when placed in a socially enriched environment.



191. Edith abuses both her 3-year-old and 1-year-old daughters. Her behavior is most likely related to a lack of
  A) childhood experience with younger brothers and sisters.
  B) maturation.
  C) an early and secure attachment to her own parents.
  D) formal operational intelligence.



192. When golden hamsters were repeatedly threatened and attacked while young, they suffered long-term changes in
  A) object permanence.
  B) brain chemistry.
  C) conservation.
  D) egocentrism.



193. Children who suffer chronic abuse and become aggressive teens and adults have been found to have
  A) lower-than-normal levels of serotonin.
  B) higher-than-normal levels of testosterone.
  C) lower-than-normal levels of testosterone.
  D) lower-than-normal levels of adrenal hormones.



194. Experiencing severe child abuse can leave ________ that can alter normal gene expression.
  A) neurotransmitters
  B) enzymes
  C) epigenetic marks
  D) critical periods



195. Abuse victims are at considerable risk for depression if they carry a gene variation that spurs the production of
  A) serotonin.
  B) stress hormones.
  C) oxytocin.
  D) testosterone.



196. Children who have survived severe or prolonged physical abuse or childhood sexual abuse are at increased risk for
  A) criminality.
  B) substance abuse.
  C) attempted suicide.
  D) all of these conditions.



197. For several months following a sudden and unexpected divorce, Henry was excessively preoccupied with thoughts of his ex-wife. His reaction resulted from the disruption of
  A) a critical period.
  B) conservation.
  C) object permanence.
  D) attachment.



198. Your understanding and awareness of who you are is your
  A) temperament.
  B) egocentrism.
  C) self-concept.
  D) theory of mind.



199. Researchers have studied the beginnings of self-awareness by noting when infants first
  A) experience stranger anxiety.
  B) demonstrate egocentrism.
  C) develop a sense of object permanence.
  D) recognize themselves in a mirror.



200. Mrs. Carmichael secretly dabs some lipstick on the nose of her 2-year-old son and then allows him to see his face in a mirror. The child is most likely to
  A) touch his own nose.
  B) touch the mirror at the point where the lipstick shows.
  C) wave at his mirror image as if it were another child.
  D) assimilate the lipstick mark into his existing self-concept.



201. Compared with others their own age, children who form a positive self-concept are more likely to be
  A) obedient.
  B) egocentric.
  C) sociable.
  D) systemizers.



202. Two characteristics of authoritarian parents are that they
  A) expect obedience but are responsive to their children’s needs.
  B) submit to their children’s desires but are unresponsive in times of need.
  C) impose rules and expect obedience.
  D) exert control by setting rules and explaining the reasons for those rules.



203. The McDougals use harsh discipline on their children and demand unquestioning obedience. Psychologists are likely to characterize the McDougals as ________ parents.
  A) authoritarian
  B) egocentric
  C) permissive
  D) authoritative



204. Brad and Jane exercise very little control over their two young children, and they usually allow them to do whatever they want. Psychologists would characterize Brad and Jane as ________ parents.
  A) authoritarian
  B) authoritative
  C) conventional
  D) permissive



205. Parents who are neither demanding nor responsive are said to be
  A) authoritarian.
  B) permissive.
  C) negligent.
  D) authoritative.



206. Negligent parents are especially likely to be
  A) coercive.
  B) confrontive.
  C) unrestraining.
  D) uninvolved.



207. Parents who are demanding and yet sensitively responsive to their children are said to be
  A) authoritarian.
  B) conservative.
  C) permissive.
  D) authoritative.



208. Coercive parents are _____, whereas confrontive parents are______.
  A) conservative; negligent
  B) authoritative; authoritarian
  C) negligent; conservative
  D) authoritarian; authoritative



209. Compared with authoritarian parents, authoritative parents are likely to be
  A) more conservative.
  B) less educated.
  C) more responsive.
  D) less trusting.



210. Authoritative parents are likely to have children who
  A) are obedient but have low self-esteem.
  B) have high self-esteem and are self-reliant.
  C) have high self-esteem but are somewhat dependent.
  D) are rebellious and have low self-esteem.



211. At age 12, Sean is happy, self-reliant, and has a positive self-image. It is most likely that Sean’s parents are
  A) permissive.
  B) conservative.
  C) authoritarian.
  D) authoritative.



212. If warmly supportive parents are especially likely to have children with high self-esteem, this most clearly indicates that
  A) authoritative parenting is more effective than authoritarian parenting.
  B) permissive parenting is more effective than authoritative parenting.
  C) children’s self-esteem stimulates warmly supportive parenting.
  D) warmly supportive parenting and children’s self-esteem are correlated.



213. Claims that adult personality traits are completely determined by childhood experiences are most clearly disputed by the ________ perspective.
  A) psychosocial
  B) life-span
  C) intuitionist
  D) psychoanalytic



214. Who was the first psychologist to describe adolescence?
  A) Erik Erikson
  B) Sigmund Freud
  C) Jean Piaget
  D) G. Stanley Hall



215. Adolescence extends from
  A) the beginning of concrete operations to the end of formal operations.
  B) 12 to 15 years of age.
  C) the beginnings of sexual maturity to independent adulthood.
  D) the beginning to the end of the growth spurt.



216. The developmental stage of adolescence is likely to be briefest in cultures where teens are
  A) preoccupied with peer approval.
  B) seldom married.
  C) experiencing role confusion.
  D) financially self-supporting.



217. The period of sexual maturation, during which a person becomes capable of reproducing, is called
  A) the formal operational stage.
  B) emerging adulthood.
  C) pruning.
  D) puberty.



218. People experience rapid physical development and sexual maturation
  A) during late adolescence.
  B) at puberty.
  C) when the frontal lobe matures.
  D) during emerging adulthood.



219. Menarche is a maturational milestone most directly associated with
  A) postconventional morality.
  B) dual processing.
  C) role confusion.
  D) puberty.



220. Boys who mature at an early age tend to be more
  A) physically uncoordinated.
  B) sexually inhibited.
  C) popular and self-assured.
  D) academically successful.



221. Ten-year-old Heidi is maturing early and already towers over all the girls and most of the boys in her fifth-grade class. Heidi is likely to be
  A) the most popular student in class.
  B) self-assured and independent.
  C) challenging her teacher’s authority.
  D) the object of some teasing.



222. The selective loss of unused connections among brain cells is called
  A) pruning.
  B) menarche.
  C) autonomy.
  D) generativity.



223. As teens mature, the growth of myelin facilitates
  A) the development of impulsive risky behaviors.
  B) feelings of attraction toward those of the opposite (or the same) sex.
  C) the birth of new nerve cells in the hippocampus.
  D) communication between the frontal lobes and other brain regions.



224. Young adolescents often find it difficult to curb overwhelming emotions of anger, anxiety, or pleasurable excitement because frontal lobe maturation lags behind the development of the
  A) occipital lobe.
  B) somatosensory cortex.
  C) limbic system.
  D) pituitary gland.



225. Young teens are not fully equipped for curbing risky behavior or making long-term plans because of the incomplete maturation of their
  A) thalamus.
  B) cerebellum.
  C) frontal lobes.
  D) somatosensory cortex.



226. The improving emotion regulation during one’s late teen years partially results from improved connections between the frontal lobes and the
  A) limbic system.
  B) brainstem.
  C) cerebellum.
  D) thalamus.



227. The ability to think logically about hypothetical situations is indicative of the ________ stage of development.
  A) conventional
  B) preconventional
  C) preoperational
  D) formal operational



228. Adolescents begin to use abstract reasoning skills when they achieve the intellectual summit that Piaget called
  A) an intuitionist perspective.
  B) formal operations.
  C) dual processing.
  D) generativity.



229. Fourteen-year-old Lisa was asked, “What would happen if everyone in the world suddenly went blind?” She responded, “Those who had previously been blind would become leaders.” Lisa’s answer indicates she is in the ________ stage of development.
  A) concrete operational
  B) postconventional
  C) formal operational
  D) preoperational



230. Lawrence Kohlberg focused on the development of
  A) a sense of identity.
  B) self-awareness.
  C) moral reasoning.
  D) moral intuitions.



231. Kohlberg emphasized that human behavior becomes less selfish as we mature because of our
  A) social development.
  B) physical development.
  C) cognitive development.
  D) economic development.



232. According to Kohlberg, morality based on the avoidance of punishment and the attainment of concrete rewards represents ________ morality.
  A) conventional
  B) preconventional
  C) concrete operational
  D) postconventional



233. Regis thinks it’s wrong to drive over the speed limit simply because he might get punished for doing so. He is demonstrating Kohlberg’s ________ stage of morality.
  A) conventional
  B) postconventional
  C) preconventional
  D) preoperational



234. Juanita suffers from a painful back condition. Smoking marijuana would reduce her pain, but she thinks it would be wrong because it is prohibited by the laws of her state. Juanita is demonstrating Kohlberg’s ________ level of morality.
  A) conventional
  B) unconventional
  C) preconventional
  D) postconventional



235. According to Kohlberg, postconventional morality involves
  A) behavior based on self-interest.
  B) affirmation of self-defined ethical principles.
  C) strong concern for social approval.
  D) unquestioning obedience to authority figures.



236. Mr. Lambers refuses to pay income taxes because his conscience will not allow him to support a government that spends billions of dollars on military weapons. Mr. Lambers’ reasoning best illustrates Kohlberg’s ________ stage.
  A) postconventional
  B) concrete operational
  C) preconventional
  D) conventional



237. Avoiding physical punishment is to ________ morality as respecting the laws of society is to ________ morality.
  A) conventional; postconventional
  B) preconventional; postconventional
  C) conventional; preconventional
  D) preconventional; conventional



238. Critics have noted that Kohlberg’s theory of moral development is biased against ________ societies.
  A) industrial
  B) ethnically diverse
  C) agricultural
  D) collectivist



239. Critics have noted that Kohlberg’s ________ level of moral reasoning is culturally limited, appearing mostly among people who prize individualism.
  A) preconventional
  B) postconventional
  C) concrete operational
  D) conventional



240. Haidt’s intuitionist perspective highlights the impact of automatic gut-level feelings on
  A) intimacy.
  B) role confusion.
  C) moral judgments.
  D) social identity.



241. Psychologist Jonathan Haidt has described our moral intuitions as
  A) formal operations.
  B) a pruning process.
  C) quick gut feelings.
  D) postconventional judgments.



242. Laboratory games reveal that people’s desire to punish wrongdoing is driven mostly by automatic emotional reactions rather than by deliberate conscious calculations that punishment will deter crime. This most clearly supports the ________ perspective on morality.
  A) psychosocial
  B) intuitionist
  C) postconventional
  D) concrete operational



243. Many people would find it more morally repulsive to kill someone by thrusting a knife into his or her body than by shooting him or her with a gun from a distance. This is best explained in terms of
  A) Erikson’s psychosocial perspective.
  B) Piaget’s cognitive development perspective.
  C) Haidt’s intuitionist perspective.
  D) Kohlberg’s moral development perspective.



244. Moral judgments are sometimes based on our moral reasoning and other times based on our intuitive moral emotions. This best illustrates the impact of
  A) individualism.
  B) dual processing.
  C) role confusion.
  D) delay of gratification.



245. The corrupt behavior of many ordinary people who served as Nazi concentration camp guards best illustrates that immorality often results from
  A) social influence.
  B) a pruning process.
  C) abnormal cognitive development.
  D) postconventional moral thinking.



246. In service-learning programs where teens have tutored children or assisted older adults, the teens have experienced
  A) a decreased sense of peer approval.
  B) increased school absenteeism.
  C) a decreased sense of competence.
  D) an increased willingness to serve.



247. Psychological researcher Walter Mischel gave preschoolers a choice between one marshmallow now and two marshmallows when he returned a few minutes later. Children who chose to wait for two marshmallows demonstrated
  A) a pruning process.
  B) formal operational thinking.
  C) delay of gratification.
  D) postconventional morality.



248. Learning to delay gratification promotes
  A) maturation.
  B) preconventional morality.
  C) impulse control.
  D) an intuitionist perspective.



249. According to Erikson, achieving a sense of identity is the special task of the
  A) toddler.
  B) preschooler.
  C) elementary schoolchild.
  D) adolescent.



250. Our ________ often forms around our distinctive characteristics.
  A) identity
  B) social image
  C) social identity
  D) self-concept



251. Which psychologist most clearly emphasized that adolescents often try out different “selves” in different situations as part of the process of forming an identity?
  A) Jonathan Haidt
  B) Lawrence Kohlberg
  C) Erik Erikson
  D) Jean Piaget



252. Our sense of self defines our
  A) moral intuitions.
  B) temperament.
  C) egocentrism.
  D) identity.



253. According to Erikson, trust is to infancy as identity is to
  A) late adulthood.
  B) childhood.
  C) young adulthood.
  D) adolescence.



254. According to Erikson, teens who suffer role confusion have not yet
  A) experienced a sense of basic trust.
  B) achieved a sense of autonomy.
  C) striven for a sense of competence.
  D) solidified a sense of identity.



255. Zian can’t decide what he wants to do with his life. He has tried several different jobs, but has been fired for lack of effort each time. According to Erikson, Zian best illustrates
  A) a pruning process.
  B) preconventional morality.
  C) role confusion.
  D) delay of gratification.



256. Erikson would have suggested that adolescents can most effectively develop a sense of identity by
  A) seeking a lifelong romantic relationship.
  B) severing the emotional ties between themselves and their childhood friends.
  C) investigating the personal suitability of various occupational and social roles.
  D) adopting whatever values and expectations their parents recommend.



257. Erikson suggested that adolescents who simply take on their parents’ values or conform to their parents’ expectations have failed to work on
  A) developing a sense of basic trust.
  B) delaying gratification.
  C) achieving a conventional morality.
  D) refining their sense of identity.



258. Sixteen-year-old Brenda questions her parents’ values but does not fully accept her friends’ standards either. According to Erikson, her confusion about what she really wants and values in life suggests that Brenda is struggling with the issue of
  A) autonomy.
  B) identity.
  C) initiative.
  D) integrity.



259. Prapti, a student from India, is well aware of her distinctive status as an international student at her university in the United States. This best illustrates a sense of
  A) stagnation.
  B) postconventional morality.
  C) social identity.
  D) menarche.



260. The “we” aspect of our self-concept that comes from our group membership is our
  A) moral intuition.
  B) role confusion.
  C) social identity.
  D) preconventional morality.



261. Which of the following best describes adolescent self-esteem?
  A) It rises through the early teen years and falls during the late teen years.
  B) It falls through the early teen years and rises during the late teen years.
  C) It rises through the early teen years and rises during the late teen years.
  D) It falls through the early teen years and falls during the late teen years.



262. During late adolescence, people show a(n) ________ in agreeableness and a(n) ________ in emotional stability.
  A) decrease; increase
  B) increase; decrease
  C) decrease; decrease
  D) increase; increase



263. Compared with their counterparts in more collectivist countries, 17-year-olds in North America are more likely to experience
  A) moral intuition.
  B) concrete operations.
  C) social identity.
  D) romantic relationships.



264. Who is most likely to be in a romantic relationship?
  A) Abby, who is 13 years old
  B) Catherine, who is 10 years old
  C) Daniel, who is 15 years old
  D) Beth, who is 17 years old



265. According to Erikson, ________ follows identity development.
  A) trust
  B) integrity
  C) intimacy
  D) generativity



266. Adolescents’ search for identity is especially likely to be prolonged well into their late teens in cultures that value
  A) conformity.
  B) individualism.
  C) preconventional morality.
  D) a strong sense of basic trust.



267. Erikson suggested that the adolescent search for identity is followed by a developing capacity to
  A) develop a sense of competence.
  B) form emotionally close relationships.
  C) feel autonomous.
  D) establish trusting relationshiips.



268. Compared with disagreements between parents and adolescent sons, the disagreements between parents and adolescent daughters are more likely to center on issues such as
  A) personal hygiene.
  B) dating and friendships.
  C) household chores.
  D) illegal drug use.



269. Research indicates that the high school girls who have the most affectionate relationships with their mothers also tend to
  A) have the most intimate relationships with girlfriends.
  B) have somewhat less intimate relationships with girlfriends.
  C) take longer than normal to establish their own independence and separate identity.
  D) have difficulty forming intimate relationships with boys.



270. Adolescence is typically a time of
  A) diminishing parental influence and diminishing peer influence.
  B) growing parental influence and growing peer influence.
  C) diminishing parental influence and growing peer influence.
  D) growing parental influence and diminishing peer influence.



271. Although Adam didn’t care for the taste of fried green tomatoes, he began eating them when he saw that his classmates were doing so. His behavior best illustrates the impact of
  A) temperament.
  B) role confusion.
  C) a pruning process.
  D) peer influence.



272. A rite of passage is defined as a(n)
  A) moral intuition.
  B) preoperational stage.
  C) initiation ceremony.
  D) sense of basic trust.



273. Which of the following is true of adolescence in contemporary industrialized societies, as compared with previous centuries?
  A) It begins earlier in life and ends earlier in life.
  B) It begins later in life and ends earlier in life.
  C) It begins earlier in life and ends later in life.
  D) It begins later in life and ends later in life.



274. A period from about age 18 to the mid-twenties when many in Western cultures have not yet achieved full independence as adults is called
  A) puberty.
  B) a rite of passage.
  C) emerging adulthood.
  D) the formal operational stage.



275. Mallory, a single 23-year-old, has moved back into his parents’ house after graduating from college so that he can afford to pursue a full-time graduate school program in business administration. His situation best illustrates a life phase called
  A) postconventional morality.
  B) a rite of passage.
  C) formal operations.
  D) emerging adulthood.



276. Brenda is 29 years old. She recently graduated from college and now has a full-time job and lives independently. She is in the ________ years.
  A) emerging adulthood
  B) early adulthood
  C) middle adulthood
  D) late adulthood



277. Scott is 40-years-old and works as an advertising consultant. He is married with two children. He is in the ________ years.
  A) emerging adulthood
  B) early adulthood
  C) middle adulthood
  D) late adulthood



278. Physical abilities such as muscular strength, reaction time, sensory keenness, and cardiac output reach their peak during
  A) late childhood.
  B) early adulthood.
  C) puberty.
  D) middle adulthood.



279. As men advance through middle adulthood, they experience a gradual decline in
  A) testosterone level.
  B) sperm count.
  C) ejaculation speed.
  D) all of these things.



280. Menopause refers to
  A) the cessation of menstruation.
  B) the loss of male sexual potency.
  C) irregular timing of menstrual periods.
  D) the loss of sexual interest in late adulthood.



281. Between the middle of the last century and the early years of the current century
  A) human birthrates have increased and life expectancy at birth has increased.
  B) human birthrates have decreased and life expectancy at birth has decreased.
  C) human birthrates have increased and life expectancy at birth has decreased.
  D) human birthrates have decreased and life expectancy at birth has increased.



282. The ratio of males to females first begins declining during
  A) prenatal development.
  B) childhood.
  C) adolescence.
  D) adulthood.



283. Because of the shortening of ________, aging cells may die without being replaced.
  A) immune system antibodies
  B) menopause
  C) distance perception
  D) telomeres



284. A shortening of telomeres is accelerated by
  A) aerobic exercise.
  B) vaginal intercourse.
  C) neurogenesis.
  D) obesity.



285. In one 15-year period, more Americans died on the two days after Christmas than on the two days before Christmas. It has been suggested that this illustrates
  A) a death-deferral phenomenon.
  B) lack of generativity.
  C) terminal decline.
  D) shortened telomeres.



286. With the onset of old age, less light reaches the light sensitive inner portion of the eye known as the
  A) cornea.
  B) retina.
  C) pupil.
  D) lens.



287. Lewis is a 70-year-old retired college professor. In contrast to when he was 30, he now probably
  A) needs more light when reading.
  B) is more susceptible to catching the flu.
  C) has significantly fewer neural connections.
  D) has all of these problems.



288. Mrs. Wilson is 78 years old and over the past few years she has become increasingly susceptible to bouts of pneumonia. This can most clearly be attributed to
  A) slower neural processing.
  B) a weakening immune system.
  C) the brain’s plasticity.
  D) neurogenesis.



289. Older people are NOT increasingly susceptible to
  A) pneumonia.
  B) terminal decline.
  C) common cold viruses.
  D) neurocognitive disorder.



290. Most 20-year-olds outperform most 70-year-olds on video games due to age-related differences in
  A) menopause.
  B) longitudinal study.
  C) crystallized intelligence.
  D) information-processing speed.



291. Research on older people has shown that
  A) they grow increasingly fearful of death.
  B) they become increasingly prone to car accidents.
  C) they experience less life satisfaction than younger adults.
  D) all of these statements are true.



292. Brain regions important to memory begin to atrophy as we age. This is best illustrated by the fact that the blood-brain barrier breaks down beginning in the
  A) frontal lobes.
  B) thalamus.
  C) brainstem.
  D) hippocampus.



293. In late adulthood, Mr. Klondike has become increasingly likely to make socially impolite remarks about other people’s appearance or mannerisms. His blunt comments are most likely to indicate late life shrinkage of the ________ lobes.
  A) temporal
  B) occipital
  C) parietal
  D) frontal



294. Juanita is 75 years old and hasn’t seen her granddaughter, Stephanie, in a few months. When Stephanie came to visit, Juanita asked her “Are you getting fat?” This may be related to
  A) hippocampal degeneration
  B) blood-brain barrier
  C) frontal lobe atrophy
  D) plasticity



295. The aging brain partly compensates for a loss of brain cells by recruiting and reorganizing existing neural networks. This best illustrates
  A) neurogenesis.
  B) terminal decline.
  C) plasticity.
  D) a death-deferral phenomenon.



296. Physical exercise does all of the following EXCEPT
  A) enhance muscles.
  B) enhance bones.
  C) help prevent obesity.
  D) increase heart disease.



297. Sedentary older adults randomly assigned to aerobic exercise programs exhibited all of the following EXCEPT
  A) enhanced memory.
  B) sharpened judgment.
  C) reduced risk of severe cognitive decline.
  D) hippocampal decline.



298. Sedentary older adults randomly assigned to aerobic exercise programs exhibit
  A) reduced risk of significant cognitive decline.
  B) increased risk of shortened telomeres.
  C) reduced risk of neurogenesis.
  D) increased risk of upper respiratory flu.



299. Physical exercise in later life promotes ________ in the hippocampus, a brain region that is important for memory.
  A) a reduction of myelin
  B) the shortening of telomeres
  C) the process of neurogenesis
  D) reduced plasticity



300. When asked to recall the one or two most important events over the last half century, older adults tend to name events that occurred when they were in their
  A) preadolescent years.
  B) teens or twenties.
  C) thirties or forties.
  D) fifties and sixties.



301. When adults of varying ages were tested for their memory of a recently learned list of 24 words, the older adults demonstrated
  A) no decline in either recall or recognition.
  B) a decline in recognition but not in recall.
  C) a decline in recall but not in recognition.
  D) a decline in both recognition and recall.



302. On which of the following tasks is a 20-year-old most likely to outperform a 70-year-old?
  A) recalling previously presented nonsense syllables
  B) recognizing previously presented foreign language words
  C) recalling previously presented names of cities
  D) recognizing previously presented names of fruits and vegetables



303. Remembering to take your prescribed medications at a specific time of day best illustrates
  A) the social clock.
  B) a longitudinal study.
  C) prospective memory.
  D) a death-deferral phenomenon.



304. Research has shown that brain training activities ________ subsequent performance of the practiced mental skills, and ________ everyday cognitive performance.
  A) improved; did not improve
  B) did not improve; improved
  C) improved; improved
  D) did not improve; did not improve



305. A cross-sectional study is research that
  A) follows and retests the same people over time.
  B) compares people of different ages at the same point in time.
  C) assesses different characteristics of a given individual at the same point in time.
  D) involves different researchers assessing the behavior of a group



306. Professor Kuilema compared the moral intuitions of one group of children, a second group of adolescents, and a third group of adults by assessing their reactions to a variety of moral dilemmas. Professor Kuilema conducted a ________ study.
  A) longitudinal
  B) postconventional
  C) cross-sectional
  D) concrete operational



307. The same people are followed and retested over time in a ________ study.
  A) concrete operational
  B) longitudinal
  C) postconventional
  D) cross-sectional



308. Researchers studied the effects of exercise on the physical health of over 5000 residents in one locale throughout their middle and late adulthoods. The research best illustrates a ________ study.
  A) working memory
  B) cross-sectional
  C) prospective memory
  D) longitudinal



309. The terminal decline phenomenon involves a decrease in mental ability that accompanies the approach of
  A) menopause.
  B) retirement.
  C) death.
  D) a midlife crisis.



310. A series of small strokes can progressively damage the brain and cause enduring cognitive deficits that are indicative of
  A) menopause.
  B) Alzheimer’s disease.
  C) a death-deferral phenomenon.
  D) a neurocognitive disorder.



311. The risk of developing a neurocognitive disorder in late adulthood is more than doubled by ________ in midlife.
  A) upper respiratory flu
  B) menopause
  C) heavy smoking
  D) breast cancer



312. A neurocognitive disorder caused by neural plaques and marked by a progressive decline in memory is called
  A) terminal decline.
  B) brain plasticity.
  C) Alzheimer’s disease.
  D) neurogenesis.



313. Alzheimer’s disease involves a deterioration of neurons that produce
  A) dopamine.
  B) telomeres.
  C) acetylcholine.
  D) serotonin.



314. A telltale sign of ________ consists of protein fragments that accumulate as plaque at neuron tips where synaptic communication usually occurs.
  A) neurogenesis
  B) menopause
  C) brain plasticity
  D) Alzheimer’s disease



315. During the last few years, 75-year-old Mrs. Yamaguchi has gradually become so mentally disoriented that she can’t find her way around her own house and often fails to recognize her husband. It is most likely that Mrs. Yamaguchi is suffering the effects of
  A) a death-deferral phenomenon.
  B) menopause.
  C) terminal decline.
  D) Alzheimer’s disease.



316. A diminishing sense of smell and slowed or wobbly walking may foretell
  A) neurogenesis.
  B) brain plasticity.
  C) Alzheimer’s disease.
  D) a death-deferral phenomenon.



317. Researchers have detected unusually diffuse brain activity while people at risk for ________ are trying to memorize words.
  A) alcohol use disorder
  B) weak immune systems
  C) Alzheimer’s disease
  D) pneumonia



318. Researchers have discovered that the midlife transition between early and middle adulthood is characterized by unusually high levels of
  A) job dissatisfaction and career change.
  B) marital dissatisfaction and divorce.
  C) anxiety and emotional instability.
  D) none of these feelings or events.



319. People have been most likely to describe themselves as a “sandwich generation” during their
  A) adolescence.
  B) early adulthood.
  C) middle adulthood.
  D) late adulthood.



320. The age at which people are expected to leave home, get a job, and marry has changed dramatically in Wallonia over the past 50 years. Developmentalists would say that the country’s ________ has been altered.
  A) social clock
  B) developmental norm
  C) maturation cycle
  D) family calendar



321. Jason met Rebecca during an out-of-state business trip following a minor accident in which their cars collided. Ironically, this led to the beginning of a relationship that resulted in marriage. This best illustrates that the directions in which our lives develop are influenced by
  A) neural plasticity.
  B) terminal decline.
  C) neurogenesis.
  D) chance events.



322. Erik Erikson suggested that a major task of adulthood was to develop a sense of contributing to the world by being productive. According to Erikson, those who do this effectively demonstrate
  A) conservation.
  B) generativity.
  C) Accommodation.
  D) moral intuition.



323. Professor Polinski suggested that humans pair-bond because this practice encouraged the cooperative nurture and survival of children. The professor’s suggestion best illustrates a(n) ________ perspective.
  A) longitudinal
  B) cross-sectional
  C) intuitionist
  D) evolutionary



324. By gradually sharing increasingly intimate information about their lives, Quince and Juanita developed a satisfying and committed romantic relationship. This best illustrates the value of
  A) generativity.
  B) the social clock.
  C) self-disclosure.
  D) chance events.



325. Compared with their counterparts of 30 years ago, men in Western countries today are marrying
  A) at a younger age and women in Western countries are marrying at an older age.
  B) at an older age and women in Western countries are marrying at a younger age.
  C) at an older age and women in Western countries are marrying at an older age.
  D) at a younger age and women in Western countries are marrying at a younger age.



326. After living together for a year without any long-term commitment to their relationship, Sylvia and Yefim have decided to marry. Research on premarital cohabitation most strongly suggests that
  A) they have more positive attitudes toward the institution of marriage than the average couple.
  B) their marriage will have a higher-than-average probability of being successful.
  C) most of their college friends and acquaintances have viewed their cohabitation negatively.
  D) their marriage will have a higher-than-average probability of ending in divorce.



327. A ________ of Americans say that love counts as a very important reason to marry and a ________ of Americans say that financial stability counts as a very important reason to marry.
  A) majority; majority
  B) minority; minority
  C) majority; minority
  D) minority; majority



328. Research has found that one predictor of marital satisfaction is the
  A) frequency of their sexual intimacy.
  B) intensity of their passionate feelings.
  C) ratio of their positive to negative interactions with each other.
  D) experience or nonexperience of a prior marriage.



329. Among employed women, the task of raising children is especially likely to be associated with ________ marital satisfaction. The departure of mature children from the home is typically associated with ________ marital satisfaction.
  A) increasing; decreasing
  B) decreasing; increasing
  C) increasing; further increasing
  D) decreasing; further decreasing



330. When children grow up and leave home, parents most frequently report feeling
  A) depressed.
  B) bored.
  C) happy.
  D) anxious.



331. Marie feels socially useful in her career as a financial investment adviser. Erik Erikson would have suggested that Marie experiences a sense of
  A) attachment.
  B) autonomy.
  C) generativity.
  D) plasticity.



332. People typically experience an increasing sense of confidence and self-esteem
  A) from the early to mid-teen years.
  B) from the mid-teen years to midlife.
  C) from middle adulthood through the very final weeks prior to death.
  D) during all of these periods.



333. There is very little relationship between the age of an adult and his or her
  A) risk of neurocognitive disorder.
  B) ability to recall meaningless information.
  C) level of life satisfaction.
  D) risk of accidental physical injury.



334. As people progress into late adulthood, ________ feelings, supported by enhanced emotional control, and the amygdala shows diminishing activity in response to ________ events.
  A) negative; negative
  B) positive; positive
  C) negative; positive
  D) positive; negative



335. Compared with teens and young adults, older adults have ________ friendships and experience ________ attachment anxiety.
  A) more; less
  B) fewer; more
  C) more; more
  D) fewer; less



336. Compared with middle-aged adults, older adults experience
  A) positive emotions with less intensity and negative emotions with more intensity.
  B) positive emotions with more intensity and negative emotions with less intensity.
  C) positive emotions with less intensity and negative emotions with less intensity.
  D) positive emotions with more intensity and negative emotions with more intensity.



337. Compared with when she was an adolescent, elderly Mrs. Packer is likely to experience a sad mood with
  A) less intensity and for a longer time.
  B) more intensity and for a shorter time.
  C) less intensity and for a shorter time.
  D) more intensity and for a longer time.



338. An integrated understanding of successful aging in terms of appropriate nutrition, family support, and an optimistic outlook is most clearly provided by
  A) a cross-sectional study.
  B) an intuitionist perspective.
  C) a biopsychosocial approach.
  D) an evolutionary perspective.



339. As people progress into late adulthood, their emotional highs become ________ high and their emotional lows become ________ low.
  A) more; less
  B) less; more
  C) more; more
  D) less; less



340. During the time following the death of a loved one
  A) those who express the strongest grief immediately do not purge their grief more quickly.
  B) those who talk frequently with others are unusually likely to prolong their own feelings of depression.
  C) grieving men are at less risk for ill health than are grieving women.
  D) both men and women go through predictable stages of denial followed by anger.



341. Older adults who feel satisfied when reflecting on their lives demonstrate what Erikson called a sense of
  A) attachment.
  B) maturity.
  C) integrity.
  D) resilience.



342. According to Erikson, adolescence is to identity as late adulthood is to
  A) integrity.
  B) autonomy.
  C) generativity.
  D) intimacy.




Answer Key


1. D
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. D
7. B
8. C
9. C
10. B
11. A
12. A
13. D
14. A
15. B
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. D
23. C
24. C
25. B
26. B
27. C
28. C
29. A
30. C
31. D
32. B
33. A
34. D
35. D
36. C
37. D
38. D
39. B
40. C
41. D
42. C
43. C
44. C
45. D
46. D
47. C
48. A
49. B
50. C
51. B
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. A
57. B
58. B
59. B
60. C
61. A
62. B
63. C
64. B
65. C
66. D
67. D
68. D
69. C
70. B
71. C
72. B
73. B
74. D
75. C
76. C
77. C
78. D
79. B
80. B
81. B
82. B
83. C
84. C
85. C
86. B
87. A
88. D
89. D
90. C
91. C
92. C
93. C
94. A
95. A
96. B
97. A
98. B
99. D
100. C
101. C
102. B
103. B
104. C
105. C
106. C
107. D
108. A
109. A
110. A
111. B
112. B
113. A
114. C
115. D
116. C
117. C
118. B
119. D
120. B
121. A
122. D
123. A
124. C
125. D
126. B
127. B
128. B
129. C
130. B
131. D
132. D
133. A
134. D
135. D
136. B
137. C
138. D
139. C
140. C
141. C
142. D
143. D
144. C
145. A
146. A
147. B
148. B
149. C
150. D
151. D
152. B
153. C
154. A
155. C
156. A
157. C
158. C
159. B
160. C
161. C
162. D
163. D
164. B
165. C
166. B
167. B
168. B
169. D
170. A
171. C
172. B
173. B
174. C
175. C
176. B
177. C
178. D
179. D
180. B
181. B
182. A
183. D
184. A
185. B
186. A
187. C
188. B
189. D
190. B
191. C
192. B
193. A
194. C
195. B
196. D
197. D
198. C
199. D
200. A
201. C
202. C
203. A
204. D
205. C
206. D
207. D
208. D
209. C
210. B
211. D
212. D
213. B
214. D
215. C
216. D
217. D
218. B
219. D
220. C
221. D
222. A
223. D
224. C
225. C
226. A
227. D
228. B
229. C
230. C
231. C
232. B
233. C
234. A
235. B
236. A
237. D
238. B
239. B
240. C
241. C
242. B
243. C
244. B
245. A
246. D
247. C
248. C
249. D
250. A
251. C
252. D
253. D
254. D
255. C
256. C
257. D
258. B
259. C
260. C
261. B
262. D
263. D
264. D
265. C
266. B
267. B
268. B
269. A
270. C
271. D
272. C
273. C
274. C
275. D
276. B
277. C
278. B
279. D
280. A
281. D
282. A
283. D
284. D
285. A
286. B
287. A
288. B
289. C
290. D
291. B
292. D
293. D
294. C
295. C
296. D
297. D
298. A
299. C
300. B
301. C
302. A
303. C
304. A
305. B
306. C
307. B
308. D
309. C
310. D
311. C
312. C
313. C
314. D
315. D
316. C
317. C
318. D
319. C
320. A
321. D
322. B
323. D
324. C
325. C
326. D
327. C
328. C
329. B
330. C
331. C
332. B
333. C
334. D
335. D
336. C
337. C
338. C
339. D
340. A
341. C
342. A



1. Dr. Matsuko’s major research interest is the long-term effects of child-raising practices on the psychological adjustment of offspring. It is most likely that Dr. Matsuko is a ________ psychologist.
  A) cognitive
  B) developmental
  C) biological
  D) psychodynamic



2. In emphasizing that heredity’s effects on behavior depend on a person’s home environment, psychologists are most clearly highlighting the importance of
  A) temperament.
  B) maturation.
  C) dizygotic development.
  D) nature–nurture interactions.



3. Questions about the extent to which maladaptive habits learned in childhood can be overcome in adulthood are most directly relevant to the issue of
  A) continuity and stages.
  B) stability and change.
  C) behavior and mental processes.
  D) nature and nurture.



4. Nutrients and oxygen are transferred from a mother to her developing fetus through the
  A) embryo.
  B) ovaries.
  C) teratogens.
  D) placenta.



5. If research suggested that a pregnant mother’s use of an artificial sweetener caused harm to the fetus, the artificial sweetener would be considered a(n)
  A) habituation.
  B) stress hormone.
  C) digestive enzyme.
  D) teratogen.



6. When touched on the cheek, infants reflexively
  A) retract their arms.
  B) open their mouths.
  C) close their eyes.
  D) cry.



7. The sequence in which babies master the skills of rolling over, sitting, crawling, and walking is the same around the world. This best illustrates the importance of ________ in motor development.
  A) temperament
  B) maturation
  C) imprinting
  D) object permanence



8. The rapid development of ________ helps explain why infant brain size increases rapidly in the early days after birth.
  A) object permanence
  B) epigenetic marks
  C) neural networks
  D) schemas



9. The importance of schemas was most clearly highlighted by
  A) Erikson’s psychosocial development theory.
  B) Piaget’s cognitive development theory.
  C) Harlow’s attachment theory.
  D) Vygotsky’s social cognitive theory.



10. Two closed, pyramid-shaped beakers containing clearly identical amounts of a liquid are judged by a child to hold different amounts after one of the beakers is inverted. The child apparently lacks a
  A) sense of object permanence.
  B) concept of conservation.
  C) capacity for habituation.
  D) secure attachment.



11. A child’s realization that others may have beliefs that the child knows to be false best illustrates the development of
  A) object permanence.
  B) egocentrism.
  C) a theory of mind.
  D) stranger anxiety.



12. Lev Vygotsky emphasized that giving children ________ provides them with a tool for advancing to higher levels of thinking.
  A) new words
  B) time-out periods
  C) a secure attachment
  D) a sense of object permanence



13. Autism spectrum disorder now is diagnosed in _____ American children by 8 years of age.
  A) 1 in 38
  B) 1 in 68
  C) 1 in 100
  D) 1 in 2500



14. The Harlows’ infant monkeys developed ___________ their artificial cloth mothers.
  A) a fear of
  B) an attachment to
  C) aggressive responses to
  D) a sense of indifference to



15. The process of imprinting occurs during a brief developmental phase known as
  A) the preoperational stage.
  B) object permanence.
  C) accommodation.
  D) a critical period.



16. Although 3-year-old Adam happily explores the attractive toys located in the dentist’s waiting room, he periodically returns to his mother’s side for brief moments. Adam most clearly displays signs of
  A) secure attachment.
  B) object permanence.
  C) egocentrism.
  D) conservation.



17. One’s self-concept is developed by the age of
  A) 2 years.
  B) 5 years.
  C) 12 years.
  D) 15 years.



18. “I don’t care whether you want to wash the dishes, you will do so because I said so!” This statement is most representative of a(n) ________ parenting style.
  A) preconventional
  B) authoritative
  C) formal operational
  D) authoritarian



19. Which of the following is NOT true regarding adolescent pubertal development?
  A) Puberty follows a surge of hormones.
  B) Puberty is related to an intensification of moods.
  C) Hormones released during puberty trigger bodily changes.
  D) The timing of puberty is predictable.



20. During adolescence, maturation of the ________ lags behind maturation of the ________.
  A) brainstem; pituitary
  B) pituitary; brainstem
  C) limbic system; frontal lobes
  D) frontal lobes; limbic system



21. Adolescents’ sense of what’s fair is most likely to change from simple equality to what’s proportional to merit when they achieve
  A) formal operations.
  B) menarche.
  C) preconventional morality.
  D) an identity.



22. Mark believes that choosing to violate government laws is morally justifiable if it is done to protect the lives of innocent people. Kohlberg would suggest that this illustrates ________ morality.
  A) conventional
  B) unconventional
  C) preconventional
  D) postconventional



23. Jessica acts so differently with her parents than with her girlfriends that she often thinks her personality is completely phony. Erik Erikson would have suggested that Jessica is experiencing
  A) delay of gratification.
  B) stagnation.
  C) role confusion.
  D) generativity.



24. Adolescents are most likely to be influenced by their parents with respect to ________, and they are most likely to be influenced by their peers with respect to ________.
  A) online communication habits; college choices
  B) dating practices; religious faith
  C) bedtime preferences; political views
  D) career choices; clothing preferences



25. A public initiation into adult responsibilities and status is called a
  A) pruning process.
  B) critical period.
  C) rite of passage.
  D) delay of gratification.



26. The gap between adolescence and independence is referred to as
  A) young adulthood.
  B) emerging adulthood.
  C) late adolescence.
  D) extended adolescence.



27. Physical exercise in late adulthood has been found to
  A) enhance muscle strength.
  B) help prevent heart disease.
  C) stimulate brain cell development.
  D) do all of these things.



28. Among older adults, hearing loss, and its associated social isolation, predicts the incidence of depression and
  A) menopause.
  B) brain plasticity.
  C) neurocognitive disorder.
  D) a death-deferral phenomenon.



29. The preferred age for retirement is quite different in Mexico than in Western Europe. This best illustrates that ________ differs from culture to culture.
  A) the maturational cycle
  B) an empty nest
  C) terminal decline
  D) the social clock



30. Since the advent of the Internet, there has been a(n) ________ in the percentage of American couples who report meeting online. The percentage meeting online is currently ________ among same-sex couples than among heterosexual couples.
  A) increase; smaller
  B) decrease; smaller
  C) increase; larger
  D) decrease; larger



31. When asked what they would have done differently if they could relive their lives, people’s most common answer was
  A) had more children.
  B) spent more time with my parents.
  C) taken my education more seriously.
  D) exercised more.



32. Abner, a 70-year-old retired teacher, feels that his life has not been of any real value or significance. According to Erikson, Abner has failed to achieve a sense of
  A) basic trust.
  B) intimacy.
  C) autonomy.
  D) integrity.




Answer Key


1. B
2. D
3. B
4. D
5. D
6. B
7. B
8. C
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. B
14. B
15. D
16. A
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. D
23. C
24. D
25. C
26. B
27. D
28. C
29. D
30. C
31. C
32. D





1. Mark thinks that language development over the life span requires a slow but steady shaping process. His belief is most directly relevant to the issue of
  A) continuity and stages.
  B) nature and nurture.
  C) behavior and mental processes.
  D) stability and change.



2. The fusion of a sperm cell and an egg into a single cell is called
  A) secure attachment.
  B) assimilation.
  C) maturation.
  D) conception.



3. Elaina is in the fourth month of her pregnancy. At this point, her developing baby would be referred to as a(n)
  A) genome.
  B) embryo.
  C) zygote.
  D) fetus.



4. Newborn infants typically prefer their mother’s voice over their father’s voice because
  A) their reflexes are naturally triggered by higher-pitched sounds.
  B) they rapidly habituate to lower-pitched male voices.
  C) they become familiar with their mother’s voice before they are born.
  D) they form an emotional attachment to their mother during breast feeding.



5. Taking certain drugs during pregnancy is likely to expose unborn children to harmful
  A) genomes.
  B) zygotes.
  C) teratogens.
  D) DNA.



6. The best evidence that newborns possess visual memory capabilities comes from research on
  A) epigenetic effects.
  B) infant reflexes.
  C) prenatal development.
  D) habituation.



7. By a week after birth, infants are able to distinguish between their mothers’ ________ and that of another nursing mother.
  A) face
  B) smell
  C) temperament
  D) tender touch



8. After Nadia learned that penguins can’t fly, she had to modify her existing concept of birds. This best illustrates the process of
  A) conservation.
  B) assimilation.
  C) egocentrism.
  D) accommodation.



9. During Piaget’s sensorimotor stage, children acquire a
  A) theory of mind.
  B) concept of conservation.
  C) sense of object permanence.
  D) capacity for abstract reasoning.



10. Deficient social interaction and an impaired understanding of others’ emotional states is most characteristic of
  A) autism spectrum disorder.
  B) stranger anxiety.
  C) infantile amnesia.
  D) object permanence.



11. Lacking exposure to spoken, written, or signed language before adolescence, a person will never master any language. This indicates that infancy and childhood constitute a(n) ________ for language development.
  A) preoperational stage
  B) epigenetic mark
  C) sensorimotor stage
  D) critical period



12. Emotionally intense and fidgety infants become unusually anxious and aroused when facing new or strange situations. This best illustrates the impact of
  A) object permanence.
  B) temperament.
  C) egocentrism.
  D) a critical period.



13. Marissa resents the burden and constraints of caring for her infant daughter and frequently ignores her cries for attention. As a consequence, her daughter is most likely to display signs of
  A) egocentrism.
  B) object permanence.
  C) insecure attachment.
  D) self-awareness.



14. Compared with the children of authoritarian parents, the children of authoritative parents are
  A) less likely to develop a sense of self-reliance and more likely to demonstrate social competence.
  B) more likely to develop a sense of self-reliance and less likely to demonstrate social competence.
  C) less likely to develop a sense of self-reliance and less likely to demonstrate social competence.
  D) more likely to develop a sense of self-reliance and more likely to demonstrate social competence.



15. Fifteen-year-old Samantha has just experienced her first menstrual period. Her mother is concerned about her daughter’s late menstruation. Based on what you know about pubertal development, how would you respond to her mother?
  A) “I understand. Most girls start puberty when they are 10 years old.”
  B) “She’s fine. She will experience breast buds and visible pubic hair next.”
  C) “I would suggest taking her to the doctor. The timing of puberty is predictable and she is late.”
  D) “Don’t worry about it. The timing of puberty is not as predictable as the sequence of physical changes.”



16. The speed of neurotransmission in the frontal lobe increases during adolescence due to the growth of
  A) myelin.
  B) social identity.
  C) the pituitary gland.
  D) the limbic system.



17. Brain scans of young teens reveal that ________ immaturity is most evident among juvenile offenders and drug users.
  A) brainstem
  B) frontal lobe
  C) pituitary
  D) limbic system



18. Jarrud thinks he should obey his teachers only if they are carefully watching him. Kohlberg would suggest that Jarrud demonstrates a(n) ________ morality.
  A) conventional
  B) unconventional
  C) preconventional
  D) postconventional



19. The sexual abuse of a very young child is so emotionally repulsive to most people that they immediately recognize it as shamefully immoral. This best illustrates that moral judgments may reflect
  A) stranger anxiety.
  B) delay of gratification.
  C) affectively laden intuitions.
  D) formal operations.



20. According to Erik Erikson, a sense of _________ is formed during infancy by appropriate experiences with responsive caregivers.
  A) identity
  B) initiative
  C) basic trust
  D) object permanence



21. The process of developing a sense of identity during adolescence was highlighted by
  A) Erikson’s psychosocial development theory.
  B) Piaget’s cognitive development theory.
  C) Kohlberg’s moral development theory.
  D) the Harlows’ attachment theory.



22. Research on teen social relationships indicates that most adolescents
  A) like their parents.
  B) frequently include their parents in their Facebook postings.
  C) want to avoid emotionally close relationships with peers.
  D) experience positive relationships with peers and negative relationships with parents.



23. Kayla is a college student who lives on campus but is still financially dependent on her parents. She can best be classified as a(n)
  A) young adult.
  B) emerging adult.
  C) late adolescent.
  D) extended adolescent.



24. Johnny is 67 years old and is recently retired. He has three grandchildren. He is in the ________ years.
  A) emerging adulthood
  B) early adulthood
  C) middle adulthood
  D) late adulthood



25. Menopause involves a decline in
  A) testosterone.
  B) fertility.
  C) maturation.
  D) social identity.



26. The tips of chromosomes that wear down as we age are called
  A) epigenetic marks.
  B) antibodies.
  C) genomes.
  D) telomeres.



27. Judson is a 70-year-old retired automobile mechanic. In contrast to when he was 20, he now probably
  A) has a greater fear of death.
  B) is less susceptible to catching colds.
  C) experiences less life satisfaction.
  D) would not do as well on a vocabulary test.



28. The observation that the death rate increases when people reach a milestone demonstrates the
  A) fear of death.
  B) ability to prevent death.
  C) effect of telomeres.
  D) death-deferral phenomenon.



29. As adults grow older, they are most likely to show a decline in their ability to remember
  A) nonsense syllables.
  B) musical lyrics.
  C) famous people.
  D) practical skills.



30. According to Erikson, older adults can most effectively cope with the prospect of their own death if they have achieved a sense of
  A) identity.
  B) terminal decline.
  C) competence.
  D) integrity.




Answer Key


1. A
2. D
3. D
4. C
5. C
6. D
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. A
11. D
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. D
16. A
17. B
18. C
19. C
20. C
21. A
22. A
23. B
24. D
25. B
26. D
27. B
28. D
29. A
30. D


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