Physics A Conceptual World View 7th Edition – Test Bank

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Chapter 5–Gravity

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. What force drives the planets along their orbits?
    A. gravity
    B. magnetism
    C. solar wind
    D. No force is needed to drive them along their orbits.

 

  1. The discussion of the “launched apple” and the Moon shows that the
    A. velocities of the apple and Moon are constant.
    B. motion of the Moon and apple can be explained by the same laws.
    C. apple and the Moon have the same acceleration.
    D. apple and the Moon experience the same-sized force.

 

  1. If we imagine launching an apple into a circular orbit about Earth and ignore the effects of air resistance, we know that the apple will experience
    A. a constant velocity.
    B. no net force.
    C. a force due to its inertia.
    D. a centripetal force due to gravity.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the Moon is correct?
    A. The Moon has a constant velocity.
    B. There is no net force acting on the Moon.
    C. Earth exerts a stronger force on the Moon than the Moon exerts on Earth.
    D. The Moon experiences a centripetal acceleration toward Earth.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about Venus is correct?
    A. Venus has a constant velocity.
    B. There is no net force acting on Venus.
    C. The Sun exerts a stronger force on Venus than Venus exerts on the Sun.
    D. Venus is continually accelerating toward the Sun.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the Moon is not correct?
    A. The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is weaker than on Earth.
    B. Earth’s gravitational pull on the Moon equals the Moon’s gravitational pull on Earth.
    C. There is a net force acting on the Moon.
    D. The Moon is not accelerating.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about Venus is not correct?
    A. The Sun’s gravitational pull on Venus equals Venus’ gravitational pull on the Sun.
    B. There is a net force acting on Venus.
    C. Venus is accelerating toward the Sun.
    D. There is no gravity on the surface of Venus.

 

  1. Which of the following forces are exerted on a satellite that is in orbit around Earth?
    A. an attractive gravitational force directed toward the center of Earth
    B. a force in the direction of the satellite’s motion
    C. an outward force directed away from the center of Earth
    D. a and b
    E. a, b, and c

 

  1. The size of the gravitational force that Earth exerts on the Moon is ____ that the Moon exerts on Earth.
    A. greater than
    B. the same as
    C. smaller than

 

  1. Earth is held in its orbit by the gravitational force of the Sun. Therefore, the force that the Sun exerts on Earth is ____ that Earth exerts on the Sun.
    A. greater than
    B. smaller than
    C. the same as

 

  1. The gravitational attraction of the Sun for Earth is ____ that of Earth for the Sun.
    A. the same as
    B. greater than
    C. smaller than

 

  1. What is the acceleration due to Earth’s gravity at a distance of one Earth radius above Earth’s surface?
    A. 2.5 m/s2
    B. 5 m/s2
    C. 10 m/s2
    D. 20 m/s2

 

  1. What is the acceleration due to Earth’s gravity at a distance of 10 Earth radii from Earth’s center?
    A. 10 m/s2
    B. 1 m/s2
    C. 0.1 m/s2
    D. 0.01 m/s2

 

  1. An astronaut weighs 900 N when measured on the surface of Earth. How large would the force of gravity on him be if he were in an Earth satellite at an altitude equal to Earth’s radius?
    A. 225 N
    B. 450 N
    C. 900 N
    D. 3600 N

 

  1. Al the astronaut has a weight of 800 N when he is standing on the surface of Earth. What is the force of gravity acting on him when he is in a space station orbiting Earth at a distance of three Earth radii above the surface?
    A. 800 N
    B. 200 N
    C. 100 N
    D. 50 N

 

  1. If you double the length of each side of a cube, its volume increases by what factor?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8

 

  1. If you double the length of each side of a cube, its surface area increases by what factor?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8

 

  1. If you double the radius of a sphere, its volume increases by what factor?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8

 

  1. If you double the radius of a sphere, its surface area increases by what factor?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8

 

  1. A future space traveler, Skip Parsec, lands on the planet MSU3, which has the same mass as Earth but twice the radius. If Skip weighs 800 N on Earth’s surface, how much does he weigh on MSU3’s surface?
    A. 50 N
    B. 100 N
    C. 200 N
    D. 400 N

 

  1. Astronaut Skip Parsec visits planet MSU8, which is composed of the same materials as Earth, but has twice the radius. If Skip weighs 800 N on Earth’s surface, how much does he weigh on MSU8’s surface?
    A. 400 N
    B. 800 N
    C. 1600 N
    D. 3200 N

 

  1. In the law of universal gravitation the force ____ as the mass increases and ____ as the distance increases.
    A. increases … increases
    B. decreases … increases
    C. increases … decreases
    D. decreases … decreases

 

  1. The gravitational force between two metal spheres in outer space is 2000 N. How large would the force be if the two spheres were four times as far apart?
    A. 32,000 N
    B. 8000 N
    C. 500 N
    D. 125 N

 

  1. The gravitational force between two metal spheres in outer space is 1800 N. How large would the force be if the two spheres were twice as far apart?
    A. 7200 N
    B. 3600 N
    C. 900 N
    D. 450 N

 

  1. The gravitational force between two metal spheres in outer space is 1000 N. How large would this force be if each of the two spheres had twice the mass?
    A. 1000 N
    B. 2000 N
    C. 4000 N
    D. 16,000 N

 

  1. A solid lead sphere of radius 10 m (about 66 ft across!) has a mass of about 57 million kg. If two of these spheres are floating in deep space with their centers 20 m apart, the gravitational attraction between the spheres is only 540 N (about 120 lb). How large would this gravitational force be if the distance between the centers of the two spheres were tripled?
    A. 60 N
    B. 180 N
    C. 1620 N
    D. 4860 N

 

  1. Two spacecraft in outer space attract each other with a force of 20 N. What would the attractive force be if they were one-half as far apart?
    A. 5 N
    B. 10 N
    C. 40 N
    D. 80 N

 

  1. Does the Moon orbit the Sun?
    A. Yes. It goes in a circle about the Sun.
    B. No. It orbits Earth.
    C. Yes, but it also orbits Earth.
    D. No, but it would if Earth were not present.

 

  1. During the Apollo flights to the Moon a well-known TV newscaster made the following statement, “The Apollo space craft is now leaving the gravitational force of Earth.” This statement is incorrect. He should have said that the space craft
    A. was attracted only by the Moon.
    B. was attracted only by the Sun
    C. was attracted more by the Moon than by Earth.
    D. entered a region of space where there were no gravitational forces.

 

  1. The numerical value of G, the gravitational constant, was determined
    A. from knowledge of Earth’s mass.
    B. from the law of universal gravitation and the value of the acceleration due to gravity.
    C. from the value of the Moon’s acceleration.
    D. by measuring the force between masses in the laboratory.

 

  1. The gravitational constant G in the law of universal gravitation
    A. is believed to be constant with time.
    B. is believed to have the same value throughout space.
    C. leads to a determination of the mass of Earth.
    D. All of the above are true.

 

  1. When Cavendish claimed that he “weighed” Earth, he actually calculated the
    A. force that the Moon exerts on Earth.
    B. weight of Earth.
    C. mass of Earth.
    D. force that the Sun exerts on Earth.

 

  1. The law of universal gravitation is written F = GMm/r2. Why did we use the form F = mg when we studied projectile motion?
    A. The first form is not valid for projectile motion.
    B. The first form does not work because it requires two masses.
    C. The first form is not valid near the surface of Earth.
    D. The second form is a good approximation to the first and much simpler to use.

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT cause the gravitational force on an object near Earth’s surface to increase?
    A. an ore deposit just under the surface
    B. a lower elevation
    C. an increase in its mass
    D. a horizontal velocity

 

  1. Earth exerts a gravitational force of 7000 N on one of the communications satellites. What force does the satellite exert on Earth?
    A. more than 7000 N
    B. 7000 N
    C. less than 7000 N
    D. zero

 

  1. If an astronaut with a weight of 800 N on Earth steps on a bathroom scale while he is in Earth orbit, the scale will read
    A. zero.
    B. less than 800 N.
    C. 800 N.
    D. more than 800 N.

 

  1. Al the astronaut has a mass of 90 kg and a weight of 900 N when he is standing on Earth’s surface. What is his mass when he is in a space station orbiting Earth with a radius of three Earth radii?
    A. zero
    B. 90 kg
    C. 30 kg
    D. 10 kg

 

  1. From film taken in SkyLab and the Space Shuttle, we learned that objects in SkyLab
    A. have mass but no weight.
    B. have mass but no force due to gravity.
    C. have neither mass nor weight.
    D. fall to the floor with an acceleration of 9.5 m/s2.

 

  1. You are standing on a bathroom scale in an elevator that is moving upward at constant speed, when suddenly the cable breaks. From just before to just after the cable breaks, the reading on the scale
    A. increases by a little bit
    B. decreases by a little bit
    C. remains the same
    D. decreases to zero

 

  1. NASA uses the famous “Vomit Comet,” a KC-135 cargo plane, to provide astronauts and scientiest a simulated zero-gravity environment.  The plane flies in a parabolic arc, at the top of which a passenger feels “weightless.”  This is because
    A. the acceleration of the passenger is nearly zero at the top of the arc
    B. the gravitational force exerted by Earth on the passenger is nearly zero at the top of the arc
    C. the force exerted by the floor of the plane on the passenger is nearly zero at the top of the arc
    D. a and b
    E. a, b, and c

 

  1. A child takes a small plastic bucket full of water and swings the bucket over her head in a circular arc, just barely fast enough for the water to stay in the bucket. Unbeknownst to the child, a fish is in the middle of the water.  At the top of the arc, the fish
    A. has a downward acceleration
    B. feels “weightless”
    C. has zero net force acting on it
    D. a and b
    E. a, b, and c

 

  1. Over which of the following locations is it possible to have a synchronous satellite?
    A. New York City
    B. Los Angeles
    C. North Pole
    D. equator

 

  1. Communications satellites are synchronous satellites that orbit Earth each
    A. 90 minutes
    B. 24 hours
    C. 28 days
    D. They don’t orbit Earth; they just stay in one place.

 

  1. Exhibit 5-1

    Sally is an astronaut who has a mass of 60 kg. Currently she is conducting experiments in a permanent space station that is orbiting Earth at an altitude equal to Earth’s radius.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-1. What is Sally’s mass as measured in the space station?
    A. zero
    B. 15 kg
    C. 30 kg
    D. 60 kg

 

  1. Exhibit 5-1

    Sally is an astronaut who has a mass of 60 kg. Currently she is conducting experiments in a permanent space station that is orbiting Earth at an altitude equal to Earth’s radius.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-1. What is the force of gravity acting on Sally while she is in the space station?
    A. zero
    B. 150 N
    C. 300 N
    D. 600 N

 

  1. Exhibit 5-1

    Sally is an astronaut who has a mass of 60 kg. Currently she is conducting experiments in a permanent space station that is orbiting Earth at an altitude equal to Earth’s radius.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-1. What is Sally’s weight in the space station?
    A. zero
    B. 150 N
    C. 300 N
    D. 600 N

 

  1. The highest high tides and the lowest low tides occur when the Moon is
    A. full or new.
    B. full only.
    C. new only.
    D. first and third quarter.

 

  1. In a typical 24 hour day, there are
    A. one high tide and one low tide.
    B. one high tide and two low tides.
    C. two high tides and one low tide.
    D. two high tides and two low tides.

 

  1. Which of the following celestial bodies has the greatest influence on Earth’s tides?
    A. Moon
    B. Sun
    C. Venus
    D. Jupiter

 

  1. Jupiter rotates about its axis once every 10 hours.  How much time passes between high tides in its atmosphere?
    A. 5 hrs
    B. 10 hrs
    C. 20 hrs
    D. 100 hrs

 

  1. Mercury orbits the sun about once every 80 days.  Mercury is observed to keep the same side facing the sun at all times.  If Mercury had oceans, how much time would elapse between its high tides
    A. 20 days
    B. 40 days
    C. 80 days
    D. 160 days
    E. there would be no tides

 

  1. Although Earth’s gravitational influence gets weaker with distance, we believe that it extends as far as the
    A. Sun.
    B. edge of the solar system.
    C. edge of the galaxy.
    D. universe extends.

 

  1. What is the magnitude of Earth’s gravitational field at a distance equal to twice Earth’s radius?
    A. 20 N/kg
    B. 10 N/kg
    C. 5 N/kg
    D. 2.5 N/kg

 

  1. Suppose that the planet Mercury were magically replaced with a baseball.  The magnitude of the acceleration of the baseball would be
    A. equal to that of Mercury
    B. greater than that of Mercury
    C. less than that of Mercury

 

  1. Suppose that the planet Mercury were magically replaced with a baseball.  The magnitude of the net force exerted on the baseball would be
    A. equal to that exerted on Mercury
    B. greater than that exerted on Mercury
    C. less than that exerted on Mercury

 

  1. In a parallel universe, there is a planet with the same mass and radius as Earth.  However, when an apple is dropped on this planet, it fall with an acceleration of 5 (meters per second) per second.  The value of G in this parallel universe is
    A. the same as it is in our universe
    B. twice as large as it is in our universe
    C. half as large as it is in our universe
    D. four times as large as it is in our universe
    E. one-quarter as large as it is in our universe

 

  1. For simplicity, a professor uses 9.8 (meters per second) per second for the acceleration due to gravity instead of the more precise 9.81 (meters per second) per second.  If Cavendish had made the same approximation,  his estimate for Earth’s mass have been
    A. too high
    B. too low

 

  1. Given that the acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s2, what is the gravitational field near Mar’s surface?
    A. 3.7 N/kg
    B. 3.7 N/kg up
    C. 3.7 N/kg down
    D. 10 N/kg down

 

  1. On the surface of a certain planet, the gravitaional field strength has numerical value 5.2.  This means that
    A. an object of mass 1 kg will experience a gravitational force of 5.2 newtons
    B. an object must have a mass of 5.2 kg in order to experience a gravitational force of 1 newton

 

  1. On the surface of a certain planet, the gravitaional field strength has numerical value gplanet.  An object that experiences a gravitational force of 0.7 newtons on this planet must have a mass of
    A. 0.7*gplanet
    B. 0.7/gplanet
    C. gplanet/0.7

 

  1. Exhibit 5-2

    On the surface of a certain planet, there is one unit of gravitational force exerted on every 0.4 units of mass.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-2.  The gravitational field strength on this planet has numerical value
    A. 1
    B. 0.4
    C. 2.5

 

  1. Exhibit 5-2

    On the surface of a certain planet, there is one unit of gravitational force exerted on every 0.4 units of mass.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-2.  Suppose that an object on the surface of this planet experiences a force of magnitude F.   The mass of this object is
    A. 0.4*F
    B. 0.4/F
    C. F/0.4

 

  1. Exhibit 5-2

    On the surface of a certain planet, there is one unit of gravitational force exerted on every 0.4 units of mass.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-2.  Suppose that an object on the surface of this planet has mass M.   The gravitation force exerted on this object is
    A. 0.4*M
    B. 0.4/M
    C. M/0.4

 

  1. If Earth’s mass were suddenly and magically reduced to half its present value, the Sun’s gravitational force on Earth would
    A. be reduced by a factor of 4.
    B. be reduced by a factor of 2.
    C. remain the same.
    D. increase by a factor of 2.

 

  1. An astronomer discovers a new planet orbiting a distant star.  By measuring the size of the orbit and the time for the planet to complete one trip around the star, the astronomer can infer
    A. the mass of the planet
    B. the mass of the star
    C. both a and b
    D. neither a nor b

 

  1. If Earth’s mass were suddenly and magically reduced to half its present value, the magnitude of Earth’s acceleration about the Sun would
    A. be reduced by a factor of 4.
    B. be reduced by a factor of 2.
    C. remain the same.
    D. increase by a factor of 2.

 

  1. The gravitational force between two very large metal spheres in outer space is 200 N. How large would this force be if the mass of each sphere were cut in half?
    A. 12.5 N
    B. 50 N
    C. 100 N
    D. 200 N

 

  1. A 320-kg satellite experiences a gravitational force of 800 N. What is the radius of the satellite’s orbit? (Earth’s radius is 6,400 km.)
    A. 6,400 km
    B. 12,800 km
    C. 19,200 km
    D. 25,600 km

 

  1. A 600-kg geosynchronous satellite has an orbital radius of 6.6 Earth radii. What gravitational force does Earth exert on the satellite?
    A. 13.8 N
    B. 90.9 N
    C. 138 N
    D. 909 N

 

  1. What is the gravitational force between two 20-kg iron balls separated by a distance of 0.5 m? The gravitational constant is G = 6.67 ´ 10-11 N-m2/kg2.
    A. 2.67 ´ 10-9 N
    B. 5.34 ´ 10-9 N
    C. 5.34 ´ 10-8 N
    D. 1.07 ´ 10-7 N

 

  1. The masses of the Moon and Earth are 7.4 ´ 1022 kg and 6 ´ 1024 kg, respectively. Earth-Moon distance is 3.8 ´ 108 m. What is the size of the gravitational force between Earth and the Moon? The gravitational constant is G = 6.67 ´ 10-11 N-m2/kg2.
    A. 2.05 ´ 1020 N
    B. 7.79 ´ 1028 N
    C. 3.07 ´ 1030 N
    D. 1.17 ´ 1039 N

 

  1. If an astronaut in full gear has a weight of 1200 N on Earth, how much will the astronaut weigh on the Moon?
    A. 20 N
    B. 120 N
    C. 200 N
    D. 720 N

 

  1. The acceleration due to gravity on Titan, Saturn’s largest Moon, is about 1.4 m/s2. What would a 60-kg scientific instrument weigh on Titan?
    A. 43 N
    B. 60 N
    C. 84 N
    D. 600 N

 

  1. Mercury has a radius of about 0.38 Earth radii and a mass of only 0.055 Earth masses. Estimate the acceleration due to gravity on Mercury.
    A. 1.45 m/s2
    B. 3.81 m/s2
    C. 26.3 m/s2
    D. 69.1 m/s2

 

  1. An 90-kg satellite orbits a distant planet with a radius of 4000 km and a period of 280 min. From the radius and period, you calculate the satellite’s acceleration to be 0.56 m/s2. What is the gravitational force on the satellite?
    A. 50.4 N
    B. 90 N
    C. 720 N
    D. 12,000 N

 

 

 

Chapter 5–Gravity Key

  1. What force drives the planets along their orbits?
    A.gravity
    B. magnetism
    C. solar wind
    D. No force is needed to drive them along their orbits.

 

  1. The discussion of the “launched apple” and the Moon shows that the
    A.velocities of the apple and Moon are constant.
    B. motion of the Moon and apple can be explained by the same laws.
    C. apple and the Moon have the same acceleration.
    D. apple and the Moon experience the same-sized force.

 

  1. If we imagine launching an apple into a circular orbit about Earth and ignore the effects of air resistance, we know that the apple will experience
    A.a constant velocity.
    B. no net force.
    C. a force due to its inertia.
    D. a centripetal force due to gravity.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the Moon is correct?
    A.The Moon has a constant velocity.
    B. There is no net force acting on the Moon.
    C. Earth exerts a stronger force on the Moon than the Moon exerts on Earth.
    D. The Moon experiences a centripetal acceleration toward Earth.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about Venus is correct?
    A.Venus has a constant velocity.
    B. There is no net force acting on Venus.
    C. The Sun exerts a stronger force on Venus than Venus exerts on the Sun.
    D. Venus is continually accelerating toward the Sun.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about the Moon is not correct?
    A.The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is weaker than on Earth.
    B. Earth’s gravitational pull on the Moon equals the Moon’s gravitational pull on Earth.
    C. There is a net force acting on the Moon.
    D. The Moon is not accelerating.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about Venus is not correct?
    A.The Sun’s gravitational pull on Venus equals Venus’ gravitational pull on the Sun.
    B. There is a net force acting on Venus.
    C. Venus is accelerating toward the Sun.
    D. There is no gravity on the surface of Venus.

 

  1. Which of the following forces are exerted on a satellite that is in orbit around Earth?
    A.an attractive gravitational force directed toward the center of Earth
    B. a force in the direction of the satellite’s motion
    C. an outward force directed away from the center of Earth
    D. a and b
    E. a, b, and c

 

  1. The size of the gravitational force that Earth exerts on the Moon is ____ that the Moon exerts on Earth.
    A.greater than
    B. the same as
    C. smaller than

 

  1. Earth is held in its orbit by the gravitational force of the Sun. Therefore, the force that the Sun exerts on Earth is ____ that Earth exerts on the Sun.
    A.greater than
    B. smaller than
    C. the same as

 

  1. The gravitational attraction of the Sun for Earth is ____ that of Earth for the Sun.
    A.the same as
    B. greater than
    C. smaller than

 

  1. What is the acceleration due to Earth’s gravity at a distance of one Earth radius above Earth’s surface?
    A.2.5 m/s2
    B. 5 m/s2
    C. 10 m/s2
    D. 20 m/s2

 

  1. What is the acceleration due to Earth’s gravity at a distance of 10 Earth radii from Earth’s center?
    A.10 m/s2
    B. 1 m/s2
    C. 0.1 m/s2
    D. 0.01 m/s2

 

  1. An astronaut weighs 900 N when measured on the surface of Earth. How large would the force of gravity on him be if he were in an Earth satellite at an altitude equal to Earth’s radius?
    A.225 N
    B. 450 N
    C. 900 N
    D. 3600 N

 

  1. Al the astronaut has a weight of 800 N when he is standing on the surface of Earth. What is the force of gravity acting on him when he is in a space station orbiting Earth at a distance of three Earth radii above the surface?
    A.800 N
    B. 200 N
    C. 100 N
    D. 50 N

 

  1. If you double the length of each side of a cube, its volume increases by what factor?
    A.2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8

 

  1. If you double the length of each side of a cube, its surface area increases by what factor?
    A.2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8

 

  1. If you double the radius of a sphere, its volume increases by what factor?
    A.2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8

 

  1. If you double the radius of a sphere, its surface area increases by what factor?
    A.2
    B. 4
    C. 6
    D. 8

 

  1. A future space traveler, Skip Parsec, lands on the planet MSU3, which has the same mass as Earth but twice the radius. If Skip weighs 800 N on Earth’s surface, how much does he weigh on MSU3’s surface?
    A.50 N
    B. 100 N
    C. 200 N
    D. 400 N

 

  1. Astronaut Skip Parsec visits planet MSU8, which is composed of the same materials as Earth, but has twice the radius. If Skip weighs 800 N on Earth’s surface, how much does he weigh on MSU8’s surface?
    A.400 N
    B. 800 N
    C. 1600 N
    D. 3200 N

 

  1. In the law of universal gravitation the force ____ as the mass increases and ____ as the distance increases.
    A.increases … increases
    B. decreases … increases
    C. increases … decreases
    D. decreases … decreases

 

  1. The gravitational force between two metal spheres in outer space is 2000 N. How large would the force be if the two spheres were four times as far apart?
    A.32,000 N
    B. 8000 N
    C. 500 N
    D. 125 N

 

  1. The gravitational force between two metal spheres in outer space is 1800 N. How large would the force be if the two spheres were twice as far apart?
    A.7200 N
    B. 3600 N
    C. 900 N
    D. 450 N

 

  1. The gravitational force between two metal spheres in outer space is 1000 N. How large would this force be if each of the two spheres had twice the mass?
    A.1000 N
    B. 2000 N
    C. 4000 N
    D. 16,000 N

 

  1. A solid lead sphere of radius 10 m (about 66 ft across!) has a mass of about 57 million kg. If two of these spheres are floating in deep space with their centers 20 m apart, the gravitational attraction between the spheres is only 540 N (about 120 lb). How large would this gravitational force be if the distance between the centers of the two spheres were tripled?
    A.60 N
    B. 180 N
    C. 1620 N
    D. 4860 N

 

  1. Two spacecraft in outer space attract each other with a force of 20 N. What would the attractive force be if they were one-half as far apart?
    A.5 N
    B. 10 N
    C. 40 N
    D. 80 N

 

  1. Does the Moon orbit the Sun?
    A.Yes. It goes in a circle about the Sun.
    B. No. It orbits Earth.
    C. Yes, but it also orbits Earth.
    D. No, but it would if Earth were not present.

 

  1. During the Apollo flights to the Moon a well-known TV newscaster made the following statement, “The Apollo space craft is now leaving the gravitational force of Earth.” This statement is incorrect. He should have said that the space craft
    A.was attracted only by the Moon.
    B. was attracted only by the Sun
    C. was attracted more by the Moon than by Earth.
    D. entered a region of space where there were no gravitational forces.

 

  1. The numerical value of G, the gravitational constant, was determined
    A.from knowledge of Earth’s mass.
    B. from the law of universal gravitation and the value of the acceleration due to gravity.
    C. from the value of the Moon’s acceleration.
    D. by measuring the force between masses in the laboratory.

 

  1. The gravitational constant G in the law of universal gravitation
    A.is believed to be constant with time.
    B. is believed to have the same value throughout space.
    C. leads to a determination of the mass of Earth.
    D. All of the above are true.

 

  1. When Cavendish claimed that he “weighed” Earth, he actually calculated the
    A.force that the Moon exerts on Earth.
    B. weight of Earth.
    C. mass of Earth.
    D. force that the Sun exerts on Earth.

 

  1. The law of universal gravitation is written F = GMm/r2. Why did we use the form F = mg when we studied projectile motion?
    A.The first form is not valid for projectile motion.
    B. The first form does not work because it requires two masses.
    C. The first form is not valid near the surface of Earth.
    D. The second form is a good approximation to the first and much simpler to use.

 

  1. Which of the following would NOT cause the gravitational force on an object near Earth’s surface to increase?
    A.an ore deposit just under the surface
    B. a lower elevation
    C. an increase in its mass
    D. a horizontal velocity

 

  1. Earth exerts a gravitational force of 7000 N on one of the communications satellites. What force does the satellite exert on Earth?
    A.more than 7000 N
    B. 7000 N
    C. less than 7000 N
    D. zero

 

  1. If an astronaut with a weight of 800 N on Earth steps on a bathroom scale while he is in Earth orbit, the scale will read
    A.zero.
    B. less than 800 N.
    C. 800 N.
    D. more than 800 N.

 

  1. Al the astronaut has a mass of 90 kg and a weight of 900 N when he is standing on Earth’s surface. What is his mass when he is in a space station orbiting Earth with a radius of three Earth radii?
    A.zero
    B. 90 kg
    C. 30 kg
    D. 10 kg

 

  1. From film taken in SkyLab and the Space Shuttle, we learned that objects in SkyLab
    A.have mass but no weight.
    B. have mass but no force due to gravity.
    C. have neither mass nor weight.
    D. fall to the floor with an acceleration of 9.5 m/s2.

 

  1. You are standing on a bathroom scale in an elevator that is moving upward at constant speed, when suddenly the cable breaks. From just before to just after the cable breaks, the reading on the scale
    A.increases by a little bit
    B. decreases by a little bit
    C. remains the same
    D. decreases to zero

 

  1. NASA uses the famous “Vomit Comet,” a KC-135 cargo plane, to provide astronauts and scientiest a simulated zero-gravity environment.  The plane flies in a parabolic arc, at the top of which a passenger feels “weightless.”  This is because
    A.the acceleration of the passenger is nearly zero at the top of the arc
    B. the gravitational force exerted by Earth on the passenger is nearly zero at the top of the arc
    C. the force exerted by the floor of the plane on the passenger is nearly zero at the top of the arc
    D. a and b
    E. a, b, and c

 

  1. A child takes a small plastic bucket full of water and swings the bucket over her head in a circular arc, just barely fast enough for the water to stay in the bucket. Unbeknownst to the child, a fish is in the middle of the water.  At the top of the arc, the fish
    A.has a downward acceleration
    B. feels “weightless”
    C. has zero net force acting on it
    D. a and b
    E. a, b, and c

 

  1. Over which of the following locations is it possible to have a synchronous satellite?
    A.New York City
    B. Los Angeles
    C. North Pole
    D. equator

 

  1. Communications satellites are synchronous satellites that orbit Earth each
    A.90 minutes
    B. 24 hours
    C. 28 days
    D. They don’t orbit Earth; they just stay in one place.

 

  1. Exhibit 5-1

    Sally is an astronaut who has a mass of 60 kg. Currently she is conducting experiments in a permanent space station that is orbiting Earth at an altitude equal to Earth’s radius.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-1. What is Sally’s mass as measured in the space station?
    A. zero
    B. 15 kg
    C. 30 kg
    D. 60 kg

 

  1. Exhibit 5-1

    Sally is an astronaut who has a mass of 60 kg. Currently she is conducting experiments in a permanent space station that is orbiting Earth at an altitude equal to Earth’s radius.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-1. What is the force of gravity acting on Sally while she is in the space station?
    A. zero
    B. 150 N
    C. 300 N
    D. 600 N

 

  1. Exhibit 5-1

    Sally is an astronaut who has a mass of 60 kg. Currently she is conducting experiments in a permanent space station that is orbiting Earth at an altitude equal to Earth’s radius.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-1. What is Sally’s weight in the space station?
    A. zero
    B. 150 N
    C. 300 N
    D. 600 N

 

  1. The highest high tides and the lowest low tides occur when the Moon is
    A.full or new.
    B. full only.
    C. new only.
    D. first and third quarter.

 

  1. In a typical 24 hour day, there are
    A.one high tide and one low tide.
    B. one high tide and two low tides.
    C. two high tides and one low tide.
    D. two high tides and two low tides.

 

  1. Which of the following celestial bodies has the greatest influence on Earth’s tides?
    A.Moon
    B. Sun
    C. Venus
    D. Jupiter

 

  1. Jupiter rotates about its axis once every 10 hours.  How much time passes between high tides in its atmosphere?
    A.5 hrs
    B. 10 hrs
    C. 20 hrs
    D. 100 hrs

 

  1. Mercury orbits the sun about once every 80 days.  Mercury is observed to keep the same side facing the sun at all times.  If Mercury had oceans, how much time would elapse between its high tides
    A.20 days
    B. 40 days
    C. 80 days
    D. 160 days
    E. there would be no tides

 

  1. Although Earth’s gravitational influence gets weaker with distance, we believe that it extends as far as the
    A.Sun.
    B. edge of the solar system.
    C. edge of the galaxy.
    D. universe extends.

 

  1. What is the magnitude of Earth’s gravitational field at a distance equal to twice Earth’s radius?
    A.20 N/kg
    B. 10 N/kg
    C. 5 N/kg
    D. 2.5 N/kg

 

  1. Suppose that the planet Mercury were magically replaced with a baseball.  The magnitude of the acceleration of the baseball would be
    A.equal to that of Mercury
    B. greater than that of Mercury
    C. less than that of Mercury

 

  1. Suppose that the planet Mercury were magically replaced with a baseball.  The magnitude of the net force exerted on the baseball would be
    A.equal to that exerted on Mercury
    B. greater than that exerted on Mercury
    C. less than that exerted on Mercury

 

  1. In a parallel universe, there is a planet with the same mass and radius as Earth.  However, when an apple is dropped on this planet, it fall with an acceleration of 5 (meters per second) per second.  The value of G in this parallel universe is
    A.the same as it is in our universe
    B. twice as large as it is in our universe
    C. half as large as it is in our universe
    D. four times as large as it is in our universe
    E. one-quarter as large as it is in our universe

 

  1. For simplicity, a professor uses 9.8 (meters per second) per second for the acceleration due to gravity instead of the more precise 9.81 (meters per second) per second.  If Cavendish had made the same approximation,  his estimate for Earth’s mass have been
    A.too high
    B. too low

 

  1. Given that the acceleration due to gravity on Mars is 3.7 m/s2, what is the gravitational field near Mar’s surface?
    A.3.7 N/kg
    B. 3.7 N/kg up
    C. 3.7 N/kg down
    D. 10 N/kg down

 

  1. On the surface of a certain planet, the gravitaional field strength has numerical value 5.2.  This means that
    A.an object of mass 1 kg will experience a gravitational force of 5.2 newtons
    B. an object must have a mass of 5.2 kg in order to experience a gravitational force of 1 newton

 

  1. On the surface of a certain planet, the gravitaional field strength has numerical value gplanet.  An object that experiences a gravitational force of 0.7 newtons on this planet must have a mass of
    A.0.7*gplanet
    B. 0.7/gplanet
    C. gplanet/0.7

 

  1. Exhibit 5-2

    On the surface of a certain planet, there is one unit of gravitational force exerted on every 0.4 units of mass.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-2.  The gravitational field strength on this planet has numerical value
    A. 1
    B. 0.4
    C. 2.5

 

  1. Exhibit 5-2

    On the surface of a certain planet, there is one unit of gravitational force exerted on every 0.4 units of mass.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-2.  Suppose that an object on the surface of this planet experiences a force of magnitude F.   The mass of this object is
    A. 0.4*F
    B. 0.4/F
    C. F/0.4

 

  1. Exhibit 5-2

    On the surface of a certain planet, there is one unit of gravitational force exerted on every 0.4 units of mass.

    Refer to Exhibit 5-2.  Suppose that an object on the surface of this planet has mass M.   The gravitation force exerted on this object is
    A. 0.4*M
    B. 0.4/M
    C. M/0.4

 

  1. If Earth’s mass were suddenly and magically reduced to half its present value, the Sun’s gravitational force on Earth would
    A.be reduced by a factor of 4.
    B. be reduced by a factor of 2.
    C. remain the same.
    D. increase by a factor of 2.

 

  1. An astronomer discovers a new planet orbiting a distant star.  By measuring the size of the orbit and the time for the planet to complete one trip around the star, the astronomer can infer
    A.the mass of the planet
    B. the mass of the star
    C. both a and b
    D. neither a nor b

 

  1. If Earth’s mass were suddenly and magically reduced to half its present value, the magnitude of Earth’s acceleration about the Sun would
    A.be reduced by a factor of 4.
    B. be reduced by a factor of 2.
    C. remain the same.
    D. increase by a factor of 2.

 

  1. The gravitational force between two very large metal spheres in outer space is 200 N. How large would this force be if the mass of each sphere were cut in half?
    A.12.5 N
    B. 50 N
    C. 100 N
    D. 200 N

 

  1. A 320-kg satellite experiences a gravitational force of 800 N. What is the radius of the satellite’s orbit? (Earth’s radius is 6,400 km.)
    A.6,400 km
    B. 12,800 km
    C. 19,200 km
    D. 25,600 km

 

  1. A 600-kg geosynchronous satellite has an orbital radius of 6.6 Earth radii. What gravitational force does Earth exert on the satellite?
    A.13.8 N
    B. 90.9 N
    C. 138 N
    D. 909 N

 

  1. What is the gravitational force between two 20-kg iron balls separated by a distance of 0.5 m? The gravitational constant is G = 6.67 ´ 10-11 N-m2/kg2.
    A.2.67 ´ 10-9 N
    B. 5.34 ´ 10-9 N
    C. 5.34 ´ 10-8 N
    D. 1.07 ´ 10-7 N

 

  1. The masses of the Moon and Earth are 7.4 ´ 1022 kg and 6 ´ 1024 kg, respectively. Earth-Moon distance is 3.8 ´ 108 m. What is the size of the gravitational force between Earth and the Moon? The gravitational constant is G = 6.67 ´ 10-11 N-m2/kg2.
    A.2.05 ´ 1020 N
    B. 7.79 ´ 1028 N
    C. 3.07 ´ 1030 N
    D. 1.17 ´ 1039 N

 

  1. If an astronaut in full gear has a weight of 1200 N on Earth, how much will the astronaut weigh on the Moon?
    A.20 N
    B. 120 N
    C. 200 N
    D. 720 N

 

  1. The acceleration due to gravity on Titan, Saturn’s largest Moon, is about 1.4 m/s2. What would a 60-kg scientific instrument weigh on Titan?
    A.43 N
    B. 60 N
    C. 84 N
    D. 600 N

 

  1. Mercury has a radius of about 0.38 Earth radii and a mass of only 0.055 Earth masses. Estimate the acceleration due to gravity on Mercury.
    A.1.45 m/s2
    B. 3.81 m/s2
    C. 26.3 m/s2
    D. 69.1 m/s2

 

  1. An 90-kg satellite orbits a distant planet with a radius of 4000 km and a period of 280 min. From the radius and period, you calculate the satellite’s acceleration to be 0.56 m/s2. What is the gravitational force on the satellite?
    A.50.4 N
    B. 90 N
    C. 720 N
    D. 12,000 N

 

 

 

Chapter 18–Refraction of Light

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

  1. Exhibit 18-1

    Refer to Exhibit 18-1. According to the graph given above, at what angle is light refracted if it strikes the surface of water at an angle of 30° ?
    A. 20°
    B. 23°
    C. 42°
    D. 48°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-1

    Refer to Exhibit 18-1. According to the graph given above, at what angle is light refracted if it strikes the surface of glass at an angle of 30° ?
    A. 20°
    B. 23°
    C. 42°
    D. 48°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-1

    Refer to Exhibit 18-1. Light in water is incident at the surface with air at an angle of 30° . According to the graph given above, at what angle is it refracted?
    A. 20°
    B. 23°
    C. 42°
    D. 48°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-1

    Refer to Exhibit 18-1. Light in glass is incident at the surface with air at an angle of 30° . According to the graph given above, at what angle is it refracted?
    A. 20°
    B. 23°
    C. 42°
    D. 48°

 

  1. If a ray of light strikes a pane of glass at 45 ° to the normal, it
    A. passes straight through as if the glass were not there.
    B. leaves the glass at a smaller angle to the normal.
    C. leaves the glass at a larger angle to the normal.
    D. leaves with the same angle to the normal, but is deflected to the side.

 

  1. If a ray of light strikes a pane of glass at 45 ° to the normal, it
    A. passes straight through as if the glass were not there.
    B. leaves the glass at a smaller angle to the normal.
    C. leaves the glass at a larger angle to the normal.
    D. leaves with the same angle to the normal, but is deflected to the side.

 

  1. A narrow beam of light emerges from a block of glass in the direction shown below. Which arrow best represents the path of the beam within the glass?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D

 

  1. A mirror is lying on the bottom of a fish tank that is filled with water as shown below. If IN represents a light ray incident on the top of the tank, which possibility best represents the ray that comes out?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D

 

  1. Two coins are at equal distances from your eye. One is under 40 cm of water, the other under 40 cm of glass. Which coin appears closer?
    A. the one under the glass
    B. the one under the water
    C. Neither, they both appear at the same distance.

 

  1. You are standing at the edge of a swimming pool filled with water looking at a logo painted on the bottom. The logo appears to be ____ it actually is.
    A. closer to you than
    B. further from you than
    C. the same distance away as

 

  1. You are lying on the bottom of a swimming pool filled with water looking at a balloon suspended over the water. The balloon appears to be ____ it actually is.
    A. closer to you than
    B. further from you than
    C. the same distance away as

 

  1. Due to the refraction of light, fish in an aquarium appear to be ____ they really are.
    A. closer than
    B. further away than
    C. located where

 

  1. Exhibit 18-2

    Refer to Exhibit 18-2. According to the graph shown above, what is the critical angle for a water-air surface?
    A. 42°
    B. 48°
    C. 50°
    D. 90°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-2

    Refer to Exhibit 18-2. According to the graph shown above, what is the critical angle for a glass-air surface?
    A. 42°
    B. 48°
    C. 50°
    D. 90°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The sharp point of light on the screen at location X is
    A. a real image
    B. a virtual image
    C. neither; the sharp point of light is not an image

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  Suppose the screen were moved to position 2.  What would be observed?
    A. a sharp point of light lower on the screen than location X
    B. a sharp point of light higher on the screen than location X
    C. a sharp point of light at the same level as location X
    D. a circular spot of light

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The screen is moved to Position 2, and a circular spot of light is observed.  The screen is then moved again, to Position 3.  The circular spot of light
    A. increases in size
    B. decreases in size
    C. remains the same size

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The screen is moved to Position 2, and a circular spot of light is observed. The screen is then moved again, to Position 3.  The circular spot of light
    A. shifts upward on the screen
    B. shifts downward on the screen
    C. remains centered at the same location on the screen

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The top half of the lens is covered with black tape.  The sharp point of light at location X on the screen will
    A. disappear entirely
    B. become dimmer
    C. become dimmer and become blurry
    D. be unaffected

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The bottom half of the lens is covered with black tape.  The sharp point of light at location X on the screen will
    A. disappear entirely
    B. become dimmer
    C. become dimmer and become blurry
    D. be unaffected

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The screen is moved to Position 2, and a circular spot of light is observed.  The bottom half of the lens is then covered with black tape.  Which of the following will occur?
    A. the circular spot of light on the screen will disappear entirely
    B. the top half of the the circular spot will disappear
    C. the bottom half of the circular spot will disappear
    D. the entire circular spot will remain, but will become dimmer
    E. the circular spot will be unaffected

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The screen is moved to Position 2, and a circular spot of light is observed.  The top half of the lens is then covered with black tape.  Which of the following will occur?
    A. the circular spot of light on the screen will disappear entirely
    B. the top half of the the circular spot will disappear
    C. the bottom half of the circular spot will disappear
    D. the entire circular spot will remain, but will become dimmer
    E. the circular spot will be unaffected

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4.  The image on the screen is
    A. real
    B. virtual

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The screen is moved to the right, directly away from the lens.  The image on the screen will
    A. remain inverted
    B. become upright

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The screen is moved to the right, directly away from the lens.  The image on the screen will
    A. remain sharply focused
    B. become fuzzy

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The screen is moved to the right, directly away from the lens.  The vertical height of the image on the screen will
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. remain the same

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The screen is moved to the right, directly away from the lens.  The vertical height of the image on the screen will
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. remain the same

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The top half of the lens is covered with black tape.  Which of the following will occur?
    A. the image on the screen will be unaffected
    B. the top half of the image on the screen will disappear
    C. the bottom half of the image on the screen will disappear
    D. the entire image will remain but become dimmer

 

  1. Exhibit 18-5

    A small fish is in an aquarium at the location shown in the top view diagram.  An observer views the fish as shown.  The dashed line is for reference only.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-5.  How many light rays must be drawn in order to precisely locate the image of the fish?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. infinity

 

  1. Exhibit 18-5

    A small fish is in an aquarium at the location shown in the top view diagram.  An observer views the fish as shown.  The dashed line is for reference only.

    The image of the fish is located
    A. to the left of the dashed line.
    B. to the right of the dashed line.
    C. on the dashed line.

 

  1. Exhibit 18-5

    A small fish is in an aquarium at the location shown in the top view diagram.  An observer views the fish as shown.  The dashed line is for reference only.

    The image of the fish is
    A. real.
    B. virtual.

 

  1. Exhibit 18-6

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharp image of the long filament is observed at the screen.  The locations of the ends of the image of the long filament are marked by the “X”’s  The dashed line and point P are for reference only..

    Refer to Exhibit 18-6.  The screen is moved slightly to the right (away from the lens).  The image of the long filament on the screen is observed to become fuzzy.  In addition, the vertical size of the image on the screen will
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. remain the same

 

  1. Exhibit 18-6

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharp image of the long filament is observed at the screen.  The locations of the ends of the image of the long filament are marked by the “X”’s  The dashed line and point P are for reference only..

    Refer to Exhibit 18-6.  The screen is moved slightly to the left (toward from the lens).  The image of the long filament on the screen is observed to become fuzzy.  In addition, the vertical size of the image on the screen will
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. remain the same

 

  1. Exhibit 18-6

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharp image of the long filament is observed at the screen.  The locations of the ends of the image of the long filament are marked by the “X”’s  The dashed line and point P are for reference only..

    Refer to Exhibit 18-6.  The screen is removed.  An observer places her eye at point P.  She would be able to see
    A. the image of the entire long filament
    B. the image of the top of the long filament
    C. the image of the bottom of the long filament
    D. none of the image of the long filament

 

  1. The critical angle for total internal reflection at an air-water interface is approximately 48°. In which of the following situations will total internal reflection occur?
    A. light incident in water at 40°
    B. light incident in water at 55°
    C. light incident in air at 40°
    D. light incident in air at 55°

 

  1. The telephone companies are proposing using “light pipes” to carry telephone signals between various locations. The light is contained inside these pipes
    A. because they are coated with silver.
    B. as long as they are straight.
    C. by total internal reflection if the curves are not too sharp.
    D. because laser light does not travel well through air.

 

  1. There is a limit to how much a fiber-optic cable can be bent before light “leaks” out. This is because bending the pipe allows light to strike the surface at angles less than the critical angle. If you were laying fiber-optic cable under water instead of in air, this problem would be
    A. even greater.
    B. not as severe.
    C. no different.

 

  1. While transmitting white light down a fiber-optic cable, you bend the cable too much in one place, and some of the light “leaks” out. Which is the first color of light to leak out?
    A. red
    B. green
    C. yellow
    D. blue

 

  1. Because of the refraction of light in the atmosphere, the apparent position of a star is usually ____ its true position.
    A. higher than
    B. lower than
    C. the same as

 

  1. If you were going to send a beam of light to the Moon when it is just above the horizon, you would aim
    A. high.
    B. low.
    C. directly at the Moon.

 

  1. Because of the refraction of light in the atmosphere, the appearance of the Sun or Moon changes as it approaches the horizon. This change can be described as
    A. an increase in diameter.
    B. a decrease in diameter.
    C. a shortening in the vertical direction.
    D. a shortening in the horizontal direction.

 

  1. Because of atmospheric refraction the image of the Sun rises ____ and sets ____ than the actual Sun.
    A. earlier … earlier
    B. earlier … later
    C. later … later
    D. later … earlier

 

  1. When two stars are observed toward the south over the equator, they are separated by 5 ° along an east-west arc. When these stars are later observed near the horizon, their separation will be
    A. more than 5°.
    B. the same.
    C. less than 5°.

 

  1. In the absence of an atmosphere, a star moves across the sky from horizon to horizon at a constant angular speed. In the presence of an atmosphere, the star will appear to move
    A. slower during the middle of its path.
    B. faster on rising and slower on setting.
    C. slower on rising and setting.
    D. slower on rising and faster on setting.

 

  1. Looming is observed when light is bent ____ near the ground.
    A. upward by warm air
    B. downward by cold air
    C. upward by cold air
    D. downward by warm air

 

  1. When looming occurs, an image is seen that is ____ the object.
    A. lower than
    B. higher than
    C. at the same height as

 

  1. Mirages are observed when light is bent ____ near the ground.
    A. upward by warm air
    B. downward by cold air
    C. upward by cold air
    D. downward by warm air

 

  1. When a mirage occurs, an image is seen that is ____ the object.
    A. lower than
    B. higher than
    C. at the same height as

 

  1. ROY G. BIV is
    A. a cowboy singer.
    B. a famous scientist who did much work in optics.
    C. a mnemonic for remembering the colors in the rainbow.
    D. a way of remembering how mirages are formed.

 

  1. Assume that the following colors of light pass through a prism. Which color ray is bent the most?
    A. red
    B. blue
    C. green
    D. yellow

 

  1. When white light passes through a prism, it is spread out into a rainbow of colors. This effect is known as
    A. interference.
    B. dispensation.
    C. complementarity.
    D. dispersion.

 

  1. The dispersion of light when it passes through a prism shows that
    A. the prism contains many narrow, equally spaced slits.
    B. all colors in the light are treated the same.
    C. different colors have different indices of refraction.
    D. the speed of light in a vacuum is a constant.

 

  1. Rainbows are due to
    A. reflection from the surface of raindrops.
    B. refraction and reflection by raindrops.
    C. refraction through raindrops.
    D. refraction and reflection by ice crystals.

 

  1. Which color is on the outside of the primary rainbow?
    A. red
    B. yellow
    C. green
    D. violet

 

  1. The order of the colors in the secondary rainbow is ____ those in the primary one.
    A. the same as
    B. the reverse of
    C. completely different than

 

  1. Where in the sky would you expect to see a rainbow in the evening?
    A. northern sky
    B. southern sky
    C. eastern sky
    D. western sky

 

  1. In order to see a rainbow at noon in the summer, a person must be looking
    A. east
    B. west
    C. north
    D. down

 

  1. At what time of day would you expect to see the top of a rainbow rise?
    A. Sunrise
    B. mid morning
    C. mid afternoon
    D. Sunset

 

  1. At what time of day would you expect to see the top of a rainbow set?
    A. Sunrise
    B. mid morning
    C. mid afternoon
    D. Sunset

 

  1. You see a rainbow from the window of your plane at noon. Where is the rainbow?
    A. in the east
    B. in the west
    C. in front of the plane
    D. below the plane

 

  1. Where in the sky would you look to see the 22 ° halo?
    A. 22° above the horizon
    B. 22° from the Sun in any direction
    C. 22° above the Sun
    D. 22° below the Sun

 

  1. Where in the sky would you look to see Sundogs?
    A. 22° above the Sun
    B. 22° below the Sun
    C. 22° to the left and right of the Sun
    D. 22° to the left and right of the antisolar position

 

  1. The halos that we sometimes see around the Sun and Moon are due to
    A. reflection in raindrops.
    B. refraction in raindrops.
    C. reflection from ice crystals.
    D. refraction in ice crystals.

 

  1. If rays of light parallel to the optic axis are incident on a ____ lens, they converge to a point after leaving the lens.
    A. flat
    B. converging
    C. diverging
    D. cylindrical

 

  1. A lens which is thinner at the center than at the edges is a ____ lens.
    A. converging
    B. diverging
    C. converging or diverging
    D. coherent

 

  1. A lens which is thicker at the center than at the edges is a ____ lens.
    A. converging
    B. diverging
    C. converging or diverging
    D. coherent

 

  1. For a converging lens, a ray arriving parallel to the optic axis
    A. appears to come from the principal focal point.
    B. passes through the principal focal point.
    C. passes through the “other” focal point.
    D. appears to come from the “other” focal point.

 

  1. For a diverging lens, a ray arriving parallel to the optic axis
    A. heads toward the principal focal point.
    B. appears to come from the principal focal point.
    C. appears to come from the “other” focal point.
    D. heads toward the “other” focal point.

 

  1. Two lenses with identical shapes are made from glasses with different indices of refraction. Which one has the shorter focal length?
    A. the one with the higher index of refraction
    B. the one with the lower index of refraction
    C. The focal lengths are the same.

 

  1. What type of lens would you use to construct a slide projector?
    A. converging
    B. diverging
    C. coherent
    D. diverse

 

  1. For a diverging lens, a ray that leaves parallel to the optic axis
    A. was heading toward the principal focal point.
    B. passes through the principal focal point.
    C. passes through the “other” focal point.
    D. was heading toward the “other” focal point.

 

  1. The focal length of a converging lens is 20 cm. The image of an object placed 60 cm from the center of this lens is
    A. real and inverted.
    B. real and erect.
    C. virtual and inverted.
    D. virtual and erect.

 

  1. The focal length of a diverging lens is 20 cm. The image of an object placed 40 cm from the center of this lens is
    A. real and inverted.
    B. real and erect.
    C. virtual and inverted.
    D. virtual and erect.

 

  1. A converging lens is used to form a sharp image of a candle. If the lower half of the lens is covered by a piece of paper, the
    A. lower half of the image will disappear.
    B. upper half of the image will disappear.
    C. image will become dimmer.
    D. image will not change.

 

  1. A converging lens is used to form a sharp image of a candle. If the lens is covered by a piece of paper with a small hole in the center, the
    A. outer part of the image will disappear.
    B. inner part of the image will disappear.
    C. image will become dimmer.
    D. image will not change.

 

  1. A converging lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Where is the image located when an object is placed 60 cm from the lens?
    A. 15 cm on the far side
    B. 30 cm on the far side
    C. 60 cm on the far side
    D. 15 cm on the near side

 

  1. A diverging lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Where is the image located when an object is placed 60 cm from the lens?
    A. 15 cm on the near side
    B. 30 cm on the near side
    C. 60 cm on the near side
    D. 15 cm on the far side

 

  1. A camera employs a ____ lens to form ____ images.
    A. converging …. real
    B. converging …. virtual
    C. diverging …. real
    D. diverging …. virtual

 

  1. The image formed on the film of a camera is
    A. virtual and erect.
    B. real and erect.
    C. virtual and inverted.
    D. real and inverted.

 

  1. In most cameras the location of the image is adjusted to appear on the film by changing the
    A. position of the lens.
    B. diameter of the diaphragm.
    C. shape of the lens.
    D. focal length of the lens.

 

  1. What kind of lens would you place in front of the lens of a simple camera to turn it into a close-up camera for taking pictures of small objects?
    A. converging
    B. diverging
    C. cylindrical
    D. astigmatic

 

  1. Which of the following CANNOT be used to reduce spherical aberration?
    A. use a diaphragm to reduce the effective diameter of the lens
    B. grind the lens with parabolic surfaces
    C. use a combination of lenses rather than a single lens
    D. use a glass with a higher index of refraction

 

  1. What is the purpose of the diaphragm in a camera?
    A. to adjust the focal length of the lens
    B. to turn the image right side up
    C. to adjust the amount of light passing through the lens
    D. to change the width of the field of view

 

  1. Which of the following can be used most effectively to reduce chromatic aberration?
    A. use a diaphragm to reduce the effective diameter of the lens
    B. grind the lens with parabolic surfaces
    C. use a combination of lenses rather than a single lens
    D. use a more sensitive color film

 

  1. A human eye employs a ____ lens to form ____ images.
    A. converging …. real
    B. converging …. virtual
    C. diverging …. real
    D. diverging …. virtual

 

  1. The image formed on the retina of an eye is
    A. virtual and erect.
    B. real and erect.
    C. virtual and inverted.
    D. real and inverted.

 

  1. What is the purpose of the pupil in an eye?
    A. to adjust the focal length of the lens
    B. to adjust the amount of light passing through the lens
    C. to focus the image
    D. to change the width of the field of view

 

  1. In the human eye the location of the image is adjusted to appear on the retina by changing the
    A. position of the lens.
    B. diameter of the pupil.
    C. shape of the cornea.
    D. focal length of the lens.

 

  1. Most of the refractive power in the eye is due to the
    A. lens.
    B. retina.
    C. cornea.
    D. iris.

 

  1. Astigmatism is caused by
    A. the dispersion of light as it passes through the lens.
    B. the non-spherical shape of the cornea or lens.
    C. a non-circular shape of the pupil.
    D. weak nerve endings in the retina.

 

  1. A converging lens that has a focal length of 0.25 m has a value of ____ diopters.
    A. +0.25
    B. +4
    C. -0.25
    D. -4

 

  1. A +5-diopter lens is a ____ lens with a focal length of ____.
    A. converging … 5 m
    B. diverging … 5 m
    C. converging … 0.2 m
    D. diverging … 0.2 m

 

  1. How many diopters are there for a converging lens with a focal length of 0.4 m?
    A. -2.5
    B. -0.4
    C. +0.4
    D. +2.5

 

  1. How many diopters are there for a diverging lens with a focal length of 0.4 m?
    A. -2.5
    B. -0.4
    C. +0.4
    D. +2.5

 

  1. What focal-length lens would you need to place next to a converging lens of focal length 25 cm to create an effective focal length of 20 cm for the combination?
    A. – 100 cm
    B. – 5 cm
    C. + 5 cm
    D. + 100 cm

 

  1. A converging lens of focal length 50 cm is placed next to a diverging lens of length 25 cm. What is the effective focal length for this combination?
    A. -50 cm
    B. – 25 cm
    C. + 25 cm
    D. + 50 cm

 

  1. How far from a magnifying glass do you place an object to view it?
    A. closer than the focal length
    B. a distance equal to the focal length
    C. greater than the focal length but less than twice the focal length
    D. at twice the focal length

 

  1. Telescopes that use mirrors as the objectives are known as
    A. refractors.
    B. reflectors.
    C. Galilean telescopes.
    D. terrestrial telescopes.

 

  1. A company wants to build a telescope with an objective that is 1 meter in diameter. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a reflector over a refractor?
    A. The mirror can be supported from behind.
    B. The mirror does not have chromatic aberration.
    C. The mirror does not sag under its own weight.
    D. The mirror gathers a lot more light.

 

  1. How does the length of a refracting telescope compare to the focal lengths of the lenses? It is equal to ____ of the two focal lengths.
    A. the differences
    B. the sum
    C. one-half the sum
    D. twice the sum

 

 

 

Chapter 18–Refraction of Light Key

  1. Exhibit 18-1

    Refer to Exhibit 18-1. According to the graph given above, at what angle is light refracted if it strikes the surface of water at an angle of 30° ?
    A. 20°
    B. 23°
    C. 42°
    D. 48°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-1

    Refer to Exhibit 18-1. According to the graph given above, at what angle is light refracted if it strikes the surface of glass at an angle of 30° ?
    A. 20°
    B. 23°
    C. 42°
    D. 48°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-1

    Refer to Exhibit 18-1. Light in water is incident at the surface with air at an angle of 30° . According to the graph given above, at what angle is it refracted?
    A. 20°
    B. 23°
    C. 42°
    D. 48°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-1

    Refer to Exhibit 18-1. Light in glass is incident at the surface with air at an angle of 30° . According to the graph given above, at what angle is it refracted?
    A. 20°
    B. 23°
    C. 42°
    D. 48°

 

  1. If a ray of light strikes a pane of glass at 45 ° to the normal, it
    A.passes straight through as if the glass were not there.
    B. leaves the glass at a smaller angle to the normal.
    C. leaves the glass at a larger angle to the normal.
    D. leaves with the same angle to the normal, but is deflected to the side.

 

  1. If a ray of light strikes a pane of glass at 45 ° to the normal, it
    A.passes straight through as if the glass were not there.
    B. leaves the glass at a smaller angle to the normal.
    C. leaves the glass at a larger angle to the normal.
    D. leaves with the same angle to the normal, but is deflected to the side.

 

  1. A narrow beam of light emerges from a block of glass in the direction shown below. Which arrow best represents the path of the beam within the glass?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D

 

  1. A mirror is lying on the bottom of a fish tank that is filled with water as shown below. If IN represents a light ray incident on the top of the tank, which possibility best represents the ray that comes out?

    A. A
    B. B
    C. C
    D. D

 

  1. Two coins are at equal distances from your eye. One is under 40 cm of water, the other under 40 cm of glass. Which coin appears closer?
    A.the one under the glass
    B. the one under the water
    C. Neither, they both appear at the same distance.

 

  1. You are standing at the edge of a swimming pool filled with water looking at a logo painted on the bottom. The logo appears to be ____ it actually is.
    A.closer to you than
    B. further from you than
    C. the same distance away as

 

  1. You are lying on the bottom of a swimming pool filled with water looking at a balloon suspended over the water. The balloon appears to be ____ it actually is.
    A.closer to you than
    B. further from you than
    C. the same distance away as

 

  1. Due to the refraction of light, fish in an aquarium appear to be ____ they really are.
    A.closer than
    B. further away than
    C. located where

 

  1. Exhibit 18-2

    Refer to Exhibit 18-2. According to the graph shown above, what is the critical angle for a water-air surface?
    A. 42°
    B. 48°
    C. 50°
    D. 90°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-2

    Refer to Exhibit 18-2. According to the graph shown above, what is the critical angle for a glass-air surface?
    A. 42°
    B. 48°
    C. 50°
    D. 90°

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The sharp point of light on the screen at location X is
    A. a real image
    B. a virtual image
    C. neither; the sharp point of light is not an image

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  Suppose the screen were moved to position 2.  What would be observed?
    A. a sharp point of light lower on the screen than location X
    B. a sharp point of light higher on the screen than location X
    C. a sharp point of light at the same level as location X
    D. a circular spot of light

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The screen is moved to Position 2, and a circular spot of light is observed.  The screen is then moved again, to Position 3.  The circular spot of light
    A. increases in size
    B. decreases in size
    C. remains the same size

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The screen is moved to Position 2, and a circular spot of light is observed. The screen is then moved again, to Position 3.  The circular spot of light
    A. shifts upward on the screen
    B. shifts downward on the screen
    C. remains centered at the same location on the screen

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The top half of the lens is covered with black tape.  The sharp point of light at location X on the screen will
    A. disappear entirely
    B. become dimmer
    C. become dimmer and become blurry
    D. be unaffected

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The bottom half of the lens is covered with black tape.  The sharp point of light at location X on the screen will
    A. disappear entirely
    B. become dimmer
    C. become dimmer and become blurry
    D. be unaffected

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The screen is moved to Position 2, and a circular spot of light is observed.  The bottom half of the lens is then covered with black tape.  Which of the following will occur?
    A. the circular spot of light on the screen will disappear entirely
    B. the top half of the the circular spot will disappear
    C. the bottom half of the circular spot will disappear
    D. the entire circular spot will remain, but will become dimmer
    E. the circular spot will be unaffected

 

  1. Exhibit 18-3

    A point source of light and a lens are arranged as shown in the side view diagram at right.  A screen is placed at position 1, and a sharp point of light is observed at location X.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-3.  The screen is moved to Position 2, and a circular spot of light is observed.  The top half of the lens is then covered with black tape.  Which of the following will occur?
    A. the circular spot of light on the screen will disappear entirely
    B. the top half of the the circular spot will disappear
    C. the bottom half of the circular spot will disappear
    D. the entire circular spot will remain, but will become dimmer
    E. the circular spot will be unaffected

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4.  The image on the screen is
    A. real
    B. virtual

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The screen is moved to the right, directly away from the lens.  The image on the screen will
    A. remain inverted
    B. become upright

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The screen is moved to the right, directly away from the lens.  The image on the screen will
    A. remain sharply focused
    B. become fuzzy

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The screen is moved to the right, directly away from the lens.  The vertical height of the image on the screen will
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. remain the same

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The screen is moved to the right, directly away from the lens.  The vertical height of the image on the screen will
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. remain the same

 

  1. Exhibit 18-4

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharply-focused, inverted image of the bulb appears on the screen.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-4. The top half of the lens is covered with black tape.  Which of the following will occur?
    A. the image on the screen will be unaffected
    B. the top half of the image on the screen will disappear
    C. the bottom half of the image on the screen will disappear
    D. the entire image will remain but become dimmer

 

  1. Exhibit 18-5

    A small fish is in an aquarium at the location shown in the top view diagram.  An observer views the fish as shown.  The dashed line is for reference only.

    Refer to Exhibit 18-5.  How many light rays must be drawn in order to precisely locate the image of the fish?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. infinity

 

  1. Exhibit 18-5

    A small fish is in an aquarium at the location shown in the top view diagram.  An observer views the fish as shown.  The dashed line is for reference only.

    The image of the fish is located
    A. to the left of the dashed line.
    B. to the right of the dashed line.
    C. on the dashed line.

 

  1. Exhibit 18-5

    A small fish is in an aquarium at the location shown in the top view diagram.  An observer views the fish as shown.  The dashed line is for reference only.

    The image of the fish is
    A. real.
    B. virtual.

 

  1. Exhibit 18-6

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharp image of the long filament is observed at the screen.  The locations of the ends of the image of the long filament are marked by the “X”’s  The dashed line and point P are for reference only..

    Refer to Exhibit 18-6.  The screen is moved slightly to the right (away from the lens).  The image of the long filament on the screen is observed to become fuzzy.  In addition, the vertical size of the image on the screen will
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. remain the same

 

  1. Exhibit 18-6

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharp image of the long filament is observed at the screen.  The locations of the ends of the image of the long filament are marked by the “X”’s  The dashed line and point P are for reference only..

    Refer to Exhibit 18-6.  The screen is moved slightly to the left (toward from the lens).  The image of the long filament on the screen is observed to become fuzzy.  In addition, the vertical size of the image on the screen will
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. remain the same

 

  1. Exhibit 18-6

    A long filament bulb, a lens, and a screen are arranged as shown.  A sharp image of the long filament is observed at the screen.  The locations of the ends of the image of the long filament are marked by the “X”’s  The dashed line and point P are for reference only..

    Refer to Exhibit 18-6.  The screen is removed.  An observer places her eye at point P.  She would be able to see
    A. the image of the entire long filament
    B. the image of the top of the long filament
    C. the image of the bottom of the long filament
    D. none of the image of the long filament

 

  1. The critical angle for total internal reflection at an air-water interface is approximately 48°. In which of the following situations will total internal reflection occur?
    A.light incident in water at 40°
    B. light incident in water at 55°
    C. light incident in air at 40°
    D. light incident in air at 55°

 

  1. The telephone companies are proposing using “light pipes” to carry telephone signals between various locations. The light is contained inside these pipes
    A.because they are coated with silver.
    B. as long as they are straight.
    C. by total internal reflection if the curves are not too sharp.
    D. because laser light does not travel well through air.

 

  1. There is a limit to how much a fiber-optic cable can be bent before light “leaks” out. This is because bending the pipe allows light to strike the surface at angles less than the critical angle. If you were laying fiber-optic cable under water instead of in air, this problem would be
    A.even greater.
    B. not as severe.
    C. no different.

 

  1. While transmitting white light down a fiber-optic cable, you bend the cable too much in one place, and some of the light “leaks” out. Which is the first color of light to leak out?
    A.red
    B. green
    C. yellow
    D. blue

 

  1. Because of the refraction of light in the atmosphere, the apparent position of a star is usually ____ its true position.
    A.higher than
    B. lower than
    C. the same as

 

  1. If you were going to send a beam of light to the Moon when it is just above the horizon, you would aim
    A.high.
    B. low.
    C. directly at the Moon.

 

  1. Because of the refraction of light in the atmosphere, the appearance of the Sun or Moon changes as it approaches the horizon. This change can be described as
    A.an increase in diameter.
    B. a decrease in diameter.
    C. a shortening in the vertical direction.
    D. a shortening in the horizontal direction.

 

  1. Because of atmospheric refraction the image of the Sun rises ____ and sets ____ than the actual Sun.
    A.earlier … earlier
    B. earlier … later
    C. later … later
    D. later … earlier

 

  1. When two stars are observed toward the south over the equator, they are separated by 5 ° along an east-west arc. When these stars are later observed near the horizon, their separation will be
    A.more than 5°.
    B. the same.
    C. less than 5°.

 

  1. In the absence of an atmosphere, a star moves across the sky from horizon to horizon at a constant angular speed. In the presence of an atmosphere, the star will appear to move
    A.slower during the middle of its path.
    B. faster on rising and slower on setting.
    C. slower on rising and setting.
    D. slower on rising and faster on setting.

 

  1. Looming is observed when light is bent ____ near the ground.
    A.upward by warm air
    B. downward by cold air
    C. upward by cold air
    D. downward by warm air

 

  1. When looming occurs, an image is seen that is ____ the object.
    A.lower than
    B. higher than
    C. at the same height as

 

  1. Mirages are observed when light is bent ____ near the ground.
    A.upward by warm air
    B. downward by cold air
    C. upward by cold air
    D. downward by warm air

 

  1. When a mirage occurs, an image is seen that is ____ the object.
    A.lower than
    B. higher than
    C. at the same height as

 

  1. ROY G. BIV is
    A.a cowboy singer.
    B. a famous scientist who did much work in optics.
    C. a mnemonic for remembering the colors in the rainbow.
    D. a way of remembering how mirages are formed.

 

  1. Assume that the following colors of light pass through a prism. Which color ray is bent the most?
    A.red
    B. blue
    C. green
    D. yellow

 

  1. When white light passes through a prism, it is spread out into a rainbow of colors. This effect is known as
    A.interference.
    B. dispensation.
    C. complementarity.
    D. dispersion.

 

  1. The dispersion of light when it passes through a prism shows that
    A.the prism contains many narrow, equally spaced slits.
    B. all colors in the light are treated the same.
    C. different colors have different indices of refraction.
    D. the speed of light in a vacuum is a constant.

 

  1. Rainbows are due to
    A.reflection from the surface of raindrops.
    B. refraction and reflection by raindrops.
    C. refraction through raindrops.
    D. refraction and reflection by ice crystals.

 

  1. Which color is on the outside of the primary rainbow?
    A.red
    B. yellow
    C. green
    D. violet

 

  1. The order of the colors in the secondary rainbow is ____ those in the primary one.
    A.the same as
    B. the reverse of
    C. completely different than

 

  1. Where in the sky would you expect to see a rainbow in the evening?
    A.northern sky
    B. southern sky
    C. eastern sky
    D. western sky

 

  1. In order to see a rainbow at noon in the summer, a person must be looking
    A.east
    B. west
    C. north
    D. down

 

  1. At what time of day would you expect to see the top of a rainbow rise?
    A.Sunrise
    B. mid morning
    C. mid afternoon
    D. Sunset

 

  1. At what time of day would you expect to see the top of a rainbow set?
    A.Sunrise
    B. mid morning
    C. mid afternoon
    D. Sunset

 

  1. You see a rainbow from the window of your plane at noon. Where is the rainbow?
    A.in the east
    B. in the west
    C. in front of the plane
    D. below the plane

 

  1. Where in the sky would you look to see the 22 ° halo?
    A.22° above the horizon
    B. 22° from the Sun in any direction
    C. 22° above the Sun
    D. 22° below the Sun

 

  1. Where in the sky would you look to see Sundogs?
    A.22° above the Sun
    B. 22° below the Sun
    C. 22° to the left and right of the Sun
    D. 22° to the left and right of the antisolar position

 

  1. The halos that we sometimes see around the Sun and Moon are due to
    A.reflection in raindrops.
    B. refraction in raindrops.
    C. reflection from ice crystals.
    D. refraction in ice crystals.

 

  1. If rays of light parallel to the optic axis are incident on a ____ lens, they converge to a point after leaving the lens.
    A.flat
    B. converging
    C. diverging
    D. cylindrical

 

  1. A lens which is thinner at the center than at the edges is a ____ lens.
    A.converging
    B. diverging
    C. converging or diverging
    D. coherent

 

  1. A lens which is thicker at the center than at the edges is a ____ lens.
    A.converging
    B. diverging
    C. converging or diverging
    D. coherent

 

  1. For a converging lens, a ray arriving parallel to the optic axis
    A.appears to come from the principal focal point.
    B. passes through the principal focal point.
    C. passes through the “other” focal point.
    D. appears to come from the “other” focal point.

 

  1. For a diverging lens, a ray arriving parallel to the optic axis
    A.heads toward the principal focal point.
    B. appears to come from the principal focal point.
    C. appears to come from the “other” focal point.
    D. heads toward the “other” focal point.

 

  1. Two lenses with identical shapes are made from glasses with different indices of refraction. Which one has the shorter focal length?
    A.the one with the higher index of refraction
    B. the one with the lower index of refraction
    C. The focal lengths are the same.

 

  1. What type of lens would you use to construct a slide projector?
    A.converging
    B. diverging
    C. coherent
    D. diverse

 

  1. For a diverging lens, a ray that leaves parallel to the optic axis
    A.was heading toward the principal focal point.
    B. passes through the principal focal point.
    C. passes through the “other” focal point.
    D. was heading toward the “other” focal point.

 

  1. The focal length of a converging lens is 20 cm. The image of an object placed 60 cm from the center of this lens is
    A.real and inverted.
    B. real and erect.
    C. virtual and inverted.
    D. virtual and erect.

 

  1. The focal length of a diverging lens is 20 cm. The image of an object placed 40 cm from the center of this lens is
    A.real and inverted.
    B. real and erect.
    C. virtual and inverted.
    D. virtual and erect.

 

  1. A converging lens is used to form a sharp image of a candle. If the lower half of the lens is covered by a piece of paper, the
    A.lower half of the image will disappear.
    B. upper half of the image will disappear.
    C. image will become dimmer.
    D. image will not change.

 

  1. A converging lens is used to form a sharp image of a candle. If the lens is covered by a piece of paper with a small hole in the center, the
    A.outer part of the image will disappear.
    B. inner part of the image will disappear.
    C. image will become dimmer.
    D. image will not change.

 

  1. A converging lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Where is the image located when an object is placed 60 cm from the lens?
    A.15 cm on the far side
    B. 30 cm on the far side
    C. 60 cm on the far side
    D. 15 cm on the near side

 

  1. A diverging lens has a focal length of 20 cm. Where is the image located when an object is placed 60 cm from the lens?
    A.15 cm on the near side
    B. 30 cm on the near side
    C. 60 cm on the near side
    D. 15 cm on the far side

 

  1. A camera employs a ____ lens to form ____ images.
    A.converging …. real
    B. converging …. virtual
    C. diverging …. real
    D. diverging …. virtual

 

  1. The image formed on the film of a camera is
    A.virtual and erect.
    B. real and erect.
    C. virtual and inverted.
    D. real and inverted.

 

  1. In most cameras the location of the image is adjusted to appear on the film by changing the
    A.position of the lens.
    B. diameter of the diaphragm.
    C. shape of the lens.
    D. focal length of the lens.

 

  1. What kind of lens would you place in front of the lens of a simple camera to turn it into a close-up camera for taking pictures of small objects?
    A.converging
    B. diverging
    C. cylindrical
    D. astigmatic

 

  1. Which of the following CANNOT be used to reduce spherical aberration?
    A.use a diaphragm to reduce the effective diameter of the lens
    B. grind the lens with parabolic surfaces
    C. use a combination of lenses rather than a single lens
    D. use a glass with a higher index of refraction

 

  1. What is the purpose of the diaphragm in a camera?
    A.to adjust the focal length of the lens
    B. to turn the image right side up
    C. to adjust the amount of light passing through the lens
    D. to change the width of the field of view

 

  1. Which of the following can be used most effectively to reduce chromatic aberration?
    A.use a diaphragm to reduce the effective diameter of the lens
    B. grind the lens with parabolic surfaces
    C. use a combination of lenses rather than a single lens
    D. use a more sensitive color film

 

  1. A human eye employs a ____ lens to form ____ images.
    A.converging …. real
    B. converging …. virtual
    C. diverging …. real
    D. diverging …. virtual

 

  1. The image formed on the retina of an eye is
    A.virtual and erect.
    B. real and erect.
    C. virtual and inverted.
    D. real and inverted.

 

  1. What is the purpose of the pupil in an eye?
    A.to adjust the focal length of the lens
    B. to adjust the amount of light passing through the lens
    C. to focus the image
    D. to change the width of the field of view

 

  1. In the human eye the location of the image is adjusted to appear on the retina by changing the
    A.position of the lens.
    B. diameter of the pupil.
    C. shape of the cornea.
    D. focal length of the lens.

 

  1. Most of the refractive power in the eye is due to the
    A.lens.
    B. retina.
    C. cornea.
    D. iris.

 

  1. Astigmatism is caused by
    A.the dispersion of light as it passes through the lens.
    B. the non-spherical shape of the cornea or lens.
    C. a non-circular shape of the pupil.
    D. weak nerve endings in the retina.

 

  1. A converging lens that has a focal length of 0.25 m has a value of ____ diopters.
    A.+0.25
    B. +4
    C. -0.25
    D. -4

 

  1. A +5-diopter lens is a ____ lens with a focal length of ____.
    A.converging … 5 m
    B. diverging … 5 m
    C. converging … 0.2 m
    D. diverging … 0.2 m

 

  1. How many diopters are there for a converging lens with a focal length of 0.4 m?
    A.-2.5
    B. -0.4
    C. +0.4
    D. +2.5

 

  1. How many diopters are there for a diverging lens with a focal length of 0.4 m?
    A.-2.5
    B. -0.4
    C. +0.4
    D. +2.5

 

  1. What focal-length lens would you need to place next to a converging lens of focal length 25 cm to create an effective focal length of 20 cm for the combination?
    A.- 100 cm
    B. – 5 cm
    C. + 5 cm
    D. + 100 cm

 

  1. A converging lens of focal length 50 cm is placed next to a diverging lens of length 25 cm. What is the effective focal length for this combination?
    A.-50 cm
    B. – 25 cm
    C. + 25 cm
    D. + 50 cm

 

  1. How far from a magnifying glass do you place an object to view it?
    A.closer than the focal length
    B. a distance equal to the focal length
    C. greater than the focal length but less than twice the focal length
    D. at twice the focal length

 

  1. Telescopes that use mirrors as the objectives are known as
    A.refractors.
    B. reflectors.
    C. Galilean telescopes.
    D. terrestrial telescopes.

 

  1. A company wants to build a telescope with an objective that is 1 meter in diameter. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of a reflector over a refractor?
    A.The mirror can be supported from behind.
    B. The mirror does not have chromatic aberration.
    C. The mirror does not sag under its own weight.
    D. The mirror gathers a lot more light.

 

  1. How does the length of a refracting telescope compare to the focal lengths of the lenses? It is equal to ____ of the two focal lengths.
    A.the differences
    B. the sum
    C. one-half the sum
    D. twice the sum

 

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