Nutritional Sciences From Fundamentals to Food 3rd Edition Shelley – Test Bank


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Chapter 5 – Protein


Multiple Choice


Answer, level, page                                                                        Level: K = knowledge, A = application/critical thinking


What Are Proteins? (pp. 163-165)


a      K     163                 1.     Proteins are macromolecules made from which of the following subunits?

  1. Amino acids
  2. Glucose
  3. Fatty acids
  4. Glycerol


c      K     163                 2.     The peptide bonds that join amino acids together to form proteins are the result of a _____ reaction.

  1. hydrolysis
  2. catabolic
  3. condensation
  4. synthetic


a      K     163                 3.     Proteins are unique in terms of their chemical structure when compared to carbohydrate and lipids because they contain _____.

  1. nitrogen
  2. oxygen
  3. hydrogen
  4. carbon


d      K     163                 4.     Each amino acid molecule contains a structurally unique part called the _____ group.

  1. amino
  2. amine
  3. carboxylic acid
  4. R-


a      K     163                 5.     What is another name for a chain of more than 12 amino acids that are bonded together?

  1. Polypeptide
  2. Tripeptide
  3. Polysaccharide
  4. Glycogen


a      K     163                 6.     Proteins can be classified as essential, nonessential, or _____ essential.

  1. conditionally
  2. partially
  3. temporarily
  4. provisionally


b      K     163-164         7.     How many different amino acids must humans get from their food?

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 11
  4. 13


c      K     163                 8.     In total, humans need how many different amino acids?

  1. 14
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 24


d      K     163-164         9.     Amino acids that cannot be made by the body are called _____ amino acids.

  1. conditionally essential
  2. hydrolyzed
  3. a-keto
  4. essential


c      K     164                 10.  The metabolic process used by the body to synthesize nonessential amino acids is called _____.

  1. reamination
  2. deamination
  3. transamination
  4. transmigration


c      K     165                 11.  People born with an inborn error of metabolism called PKU cannot convert phenylalanine to _____.

  1. tryptophan
  2. casein
  3. tyrosine
  4. aspartame


c      K     164                 12.  Which of the following is a nonessential amino acid?

  1. Isoleucine
  2. Leucine
  3. Proline
  4. Valine


Are All Food Proteins Equal? (pp. 165-166)


b      K     165                 13.  Meat, fish, eggs, dairy products, and _____ are especially good sources of proteins.

  1. fruits
  2. legumes
  3. vegetables
  4. whole grains


d      K     165                 14.  Foods that contain relatively high amounts of all the essential amino acids in the appropriate proportions are considered to be _____ protein sources.

  1. complementary
  2. partially complete
  3. vegetable
  4. complete


c      A     165                 15.  Wheat does not contain enough lysine for humans to synthesize proteins from wheat alone. Thus, in wheat, lysine is considered to be a(n) _____.

  1. nonessential protein
  2. incomplete protein
  3. limiting amino acid
  4. inadequate amino acid


b      A     165                 16.  Wheat does not contain enough lysine for humans to synthesize proteins from wheat alone. Thus, wheat is considered to be a(n) _____.

  1. nonessential protein
  2. incomplete protein
  3. limiting amino acid
  4. inadequate amino acid


a      K     165                 17.  Which one of the following food lists provides the best sources of complete protein?

  1. Meat and dairy
  2. Breads and cereals
  3. Fruits and vegetables
  4. Rice and pasta


b      K     166                 18.  Combining foods with incomplete proteins in order to obtain adequate amounts of all essential amino acids is called protein _____.

  1. combining
  2. complementation
  3. coupling
  4. compounding


a      K     166                 19.  Protein quality is based on _____ and bioavailability.

  1. completeness of the protein
  2. sequence of amino acids
  3. number of amino acids
  4. structure of amino acids


a      A     166                 20.  Which of the following food combinations yields a complete protein?

  1. Beans and rice
  2. Rice and corn
  3. Potatoes and corn
  4. Tossed salad with nuts and cranberries


How Are Proteins Made? (pp. 166-169)


d      K     167                 21.  The process of protein synthesis involves three basic steps: cell signaling, transcription, and _____.

  1. denaturation
  2. translocation
  3. deamination
  4. translation


c      K     168,169         22.  Cell signaling, transcription, and translation result in the production of thousands of different _____.

  1. mutations
  2. individuals
  3. polypeptides
  4. DNA strands


a      K     169                 23.  What happens if the shape of a protein is altered?

  1. The functionality of the protein is affected.
  2. The nutritional value of the protein is decreased.
  3. The protein is destroyed.
  4. The nutritional value of the protein is increased.


b      K     167                 24.  The term _____-regulation is used to describe the “turning on” of protein synthesis by cell signaling.

  1. on
  2. up
  3. forward
  4. start


c      K     167                 25.  The three steps of protein synthesis, in the correct order from left to right, are:

  1. translation, transcription, and cell signaling.
  2. transcription, translation, and cell signaling.
  3. cell signaling, transcription, and translation.
  4. cell signaling, translation, and transcription.


d      K     168                 26.  Each strand of DNA is called a _____.

  1. gene
  2. translator
  3. translation
  4. chromosome


d      K     168                 27.  Each _____ provides instructions as to how to assemble a particular protein.

  1. polypeptide
  2. amino acid
  3. translation
  4. gene


b      K     168-169         28.  For protein synthesis to occur, DNA, mRNA, tRNA, _____ are required.

  1. cytoplasm, and peptides
  2. ribosomes, and amino acids
  3. the nucleus, and polypeptides
  4. chromosomes, and peptides


a      K     168                 29.  For transcription to happen, _____ must communicate the DNA code to organelles outside the cell nucleus.

  1. messenger ribonucleic acid (mRNA)
  2. messenger deoxyribonucleic acid (mDNA)
  3. transfer ribonucleic acid (tRNA)
  4. transfer deoxyribonucleic acid (tDNA)


c      K     169                 30.  For translation to occur, the messenger RNA must bind to a(n) _____ in the cytoplasm.

  1. amino acid
  2. nucleic acid
  3. ribosome
  4. peptide


How Do Proteins Get Their Shapes? (pp. 169-174)


d      K     170,171         31.  Which of the following types of anemia is caused by a single error in the amino acid sequence of hemoglobin?

  1. Microcytic
  2. Macrocytic
  3. Pernicious
  4. Sickle cell


b      K     170                 32.  Polypeptide chains are twisted and folded into a three-dimensional shape called the protein’s _____ structure.

  1. primary
  2. secondary
  3. tertiary
  4. quaternary


a      K     170                 33.  The formation of a protein’s secondary and tertiary structures is due to the attraction and repulsion of _____.

  1. positive and negative charges
  2. nuclei
  3. cell membranes
  4. mRNA molecules


b      K     172                 34.  For some proteins to function, nonprotein components called _____ groups must be precisely positioned within the protein.

  1. promoter
  2. prosthetic
  3. stabilizer
  4. cofactor


d      K     172                 35.  _____ are often contained in the prosthetic groups needed for some proteins to function.

  1. Vitamins
  2. Enzymes
  3. Lipids
  4. Minerals


d      A     173                 36.  You are making a scrambled egg for breakfast. When you heat the egg, you are _____ the protein.

  1. destroying
  2. metabolizing
  3. hydrolyzing
  4. denaturing


c      K     173                 37.  Exposure to a heavy metal like mercury can alter proteins within a person’s neurological system, resulting in difficulty walking. This is an example of _____.

  1. transamination
  2. deamination
  3. denaturation
  4. transcription


Genetics, Epigenetics, Nutrition, and Nutrigenomics (pp. 174-176)


c      K     174                 38.  One’s genetic makeup or genotype _____.

  1. results from the expression of chromosomes after birth
  2. can be altered by changing one’s diet
  3. is inherited from one’s parents
  4. is remarkably similar to that of others of the same race


a      K     174                 39.  The master plan for all the proteins synthesized in the body can be found in the DNA located in a cell’s _____.

  1. nucleus
  2. cytoplasm
  3. ribosome
  4. membrane


c      K     174                 40.  Mutations in DNA can influence the cell’s ability to produce a functional _____.

  1. essential amino acid
  2. non-essential amino acid
  3. protein
  4. dispensable amino acid


d      K     175                 41.  A particular genetic mutation that is present in at least 1% of the population is called a _____.

  1. mutant
  2. transformation
  3. condition
  4. polymorphism


a      K     175                 42.  Variations in gene expression that occur without alterations in DNA sequence are called _____ modifications.

  1. epigenetic
  2. nutrigenomic
  3. nutrigenetic
  4. biogenetic


b      K     175                 43.  The study of how nutrition and genetics interact to influence health is called _____.

  1. epigenetics
  2. nutrigenomics
  3. nutrigenetics
  4. biogenetics


How Are Dietary Proteins Digested, Absorbed, and Circulated? (pp. 176-179)


b      K     177                 44.  Where does the chemical digestion of protein begin?

  1. Mouth
  2. Stomach
  3. Duodenum
  4. Ileum


c      K     177-178         45.  Protein digestion involves the hormones gastrin, CCK, and _____.

  1. HCl
  2. pepsinogen
  3. secretin
  4. trypsin


a      K     176-177         46.  What hormone is released by some gastric cells when there is food in your stomach?

  1. Gastrin
  2. Pepsinogen
  3. Cholecystokinin
  4. Trypsin


d      K     177                 47.  Pepsinogen is converted into its active form pepsin by _____.

  1. peptidase
  2. gastrin
  3. chymotrypsin
  4. hydrochloric acid


b      K     177                 48.  Pepsinogen is considered to be a proenzyme because it is_____.

  1. active
  2. inactive
  3. gastric in origin
  4. intestinal in origin


a      K     177,178         49.  Protein-digesting enzymes are released as _____.

  1. proenzymes
  2. proteases
  3. polypeptides
  4. amino acids


c      K     177-178         50.  The presence of small polypeptides and amino acids in the small intestine causes specialized cells there to release the hormone _____.

  1. gastrin
  2. pepsin
  3. cholecystokinin
  4. trypsin


b      K     178                 51.  The bulk of the absorption of amino acids occurs in the _____.

  1. stomach
  2. duodenum
  3. ileum
  4. jejunum


d      K     178                 52.  Most amino acids enter your _____ and circulate to the _____.

  1. lymph, liver
  2. lymph, pancreas
  3. blood, pancreas
  4. blood, liver


d      K     178                 53.  A food allergy is the likely result of the absorption of intact _____.

  1. amino acids
  2. dipeptides
  3. enzymes
  4. larger polypeptides


a      K     178                 54.  The majority of food allergies are caused by protein-containing foods such as eggs, milk, soy, peanuts, and _____.

  1. wheat
  2. beef
  3. pork
  4. walnuts


Why Do You Need Proteins and Amino Acids? (pp. 179-185)


c      K     180                 55.  Which of the following is an example of a structural protein?

  1. Hemoglobin
  2. Enzymes
  3. Collagen
  4. Glucagon


d      K     181                 56.  A(n) _____ is a substance that speeds up a chemical reaction but is not consumed or altered in the process.

  1. hormone
  2. amino acid
  3. protein
  4. catalyst


c      K     182                 57.  The immune system fights infection by producing proteins called _____.

  1. antigens
  2. antibacterial agents
  3. antibodies
  4. antimicrobials


a      K     182                 58.  Which one of the following proteins helps draw fluid from the interstitial spaces back into the blood vessels?

  1. Albumin
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Myoglobin
  4. Gastrin


c      A     184-185         59.  Jasmine is trying to lose weight. She has decided to try a diet that lets her eat unlimited amounts of protein. The protein that Jasmine eats that is above and beyond what she needs is _____.

  1. excreted as protein in her urine
  2. excreted as amino acids in her feces
  3. transformed into fat and stored in adipose (fat) tissue
  4. transaminated into lipids and circulated in lymph


a      K     184                 60.  When protein is needed for energy, the nitrogen-containing amino group is removed in a process called _____.

  1. deamination
  2. catabolism
  3. metabolism
  4. transamination


a      A     184                 61.  Consuming an entrée containing 700 kcalories, 30 grams of protein, 100 grams of carbohydrate, and 20 grams of fat would provide how many kcalories from protein?

  1. 120
  2. 210
  3. 240
  4. 270


a      K     184-185         62.  When the body has ample glucose and energy, what happens to excess protein?

  1. Converted to lipids
  2. Stored in the muscles
  3. Stored in the protein pool in the body
  4. Converted to bone marrow


Protein Turnover, Urea Excretion, and Nitrogen Balance (pp. 185-187)


d      K     185                 63.  The processes by which proteins are continuously broken down and resynthesized are collectively known as _____.

  1. protein synthesis
  2. protein homeostasis
  3. protein balance
  4. protein turnover

c      K     185                 64.  The continuous breakdown and resynthesis of proteins is regulated mainly by _____.

  1. enzymes
  2. neural transmissions
  3. hormones
  4. muscular contractions


b      K     186                 65.  What does the body convert ammonia (NH3) to after it is released from deaminated amino acids?

  1. Uric acid
  2. Urea
  3. Ammonium
  4. Nitrogen


d      K     186                 66.  What organ converts ammonia (NH3) to urea?

  1. Small intestine
  2. Pancreas
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver


c      A     187                 67.  Which of the following conditions is most likely to result in a negative nitrogen balance?

  1. Pregnancy
  2. Growth
  3. Stress
  4. Recovery from illness


How Much Protein Do You Need? (pp. 187-191)


b      A     188                 68.  According to the RDA, how much more protein would John, who weighs 95 kg, need each day than Bob, who weighs 80 kg?

  1. 9 g
  2. 12 g
  3. 15 g
  4. 18 g


b      A     188                 69.  How many grams of protein would someone weighing 60 kg need each day?

  1. 44
  2. 48
  3. 52
  4. 56


c      K     188                 70.  What is the most important fact to know in order to determine an adult’s protein requirement?

  1. Their age
  2. Their height
  3. Their weight
  4. Their gender


b      K     189                 71.  According to the DRI committee, people who participate in high levels of exercise need _____ protein on a body-weight basis as compared to those who do not participate in high levels of exercise.

  1. less
  2. the same amount of
  3. more (but not significantly more)
  4. significantly more


c      K     190                 72.  There is now research that suggests that physical activity, especially resistance exercise, may decrease a person’s dietary protein requirements because physical activity may _____.

  1. inhibit the breakdown of amino acids and proteins
  2. stimulate the synthesis of proteins from lipids
  3. trigger the body to become more efficient in its use of amino acids and proteins
  4. stimulate the synthesis of proteins from complex carbohydrates


b      A     189                 73.  If Mark needs 2400 kcalories per day, how much protein does he need to consume daily based on the AMDR recommendation for protein for adults?

  1. 40 to 150 grams
  2. 60 to 210 grams
  3. 80 to 120 grams
  4. 100 to 320 grams


a      K     187                 74.  What unit is used to express the RDAs for amino acids?

  1. mg/kg/day
  2. mg/day
  3. g/kg/day
  4. g/day


a      K     189                 75.  MyPlate recommends _____ to _____ ounces of lean meat, poultry, or eggs per day.

  1. 1.5, 5
  2. 2, 4
  3. 3.5, 9
  4. 4, 8


Vegetarian Diets: Healthier Than Other Dietary Patterns? (pp. 191-192)


d      K     192                 76.  Those who avoid all animal products are referred to as _____.

  1. lacto-ovo-vegetarians
  2. lactovegetarians
  3. vegetarians
  4. vegans


a      K     192                 77.  Which of the following vitamins or minerals would most likely be deficient in a vegan diet?

  1. Vitamin B12
  2. Vitamin A
  3. Folate
  4. Magnesium


What Are the Consequences of Protein Deficiency? (pp. 193-194)


c      A     193,194         78.  In industrialized countries such as the U.S., one would be most likely to see protein-energy malnutrition among _____.

  1. vegetarians
  2. athletes
  3. cancer patients
  4. teenagers


b      K     193                 79.  Which type of malnutrition is characterized by a “skin and bones-like” appearance without the presence of severe edema?

  1. Ascites
  2. Marasmus
  3. Kwashiorkor
  4. Malnutrition of mild degree


d      K     194                 80.  Causes of PEM in adults include _____.

  1. being vegetarian, excessive lipid absorption, menstruation, and obesity
  2. being vegan, food allergies, excessive urinary losses, and chronic fatigue syndrome
  3. periods of rapid growth, taking herbal supplements, and excessive fiber in the diet
  4. inadequate intake, protein malabsorption, excessive blood loss, and infection


b      K     194                 81.  Adults with PEM can experience extreme muscle loss because the muscle is broken down to provide _____ and energy.

  1. glycogen
  2. glucose
  3. glycerol
  4. glucosamine


a      K     193                 82.  When fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity, the condition is referred to as _____.

  1. ascites
  2. fatty liver
  3. bloating
  4. enlarged spleen


Protein Excess: Is There Cause for Concern? (pp. 194-195)


d      K     194                 83.  There is growing evidence that very high consumption of red meat is associated with increased risk for some forms of _____.

  1. GERD
  2. heart disease
  3. obesity
  4. cancer


b      K     194                 84.  What did the DRI committee conclude regarding the association of high protein intakes with adverse health outcomes?

  1. Epidemiological studies provide no evidence of the relationship between intake and adverse outcomes.
  2. The relationship between intake and adverse outcomes is probably not causal.
  3. Experimental data support the relationship between intake and adverse outcomes.
  4. The DRI committee has not yet evaluated the research on this association.





Answer, level, page


T     K     163-164         1.     There are nine essential amino acids.

T     K     166                 2.     Protein complementation is combining incomplete protein sources to provide all essential amino acids in relatively adequate amounts.

T     K     166                 3.     Generally, animal-derived foods are sources of quality protein.

F      K     168                 4.     Synthesis of a strand of mRNA results from translation of protein.

F      K     168                 5.     Each strand of DNA is called a gene, and each gene is subdivided into thousands of chromosomes.

F      K     169                 6.     The number of sequences of amino acids in a single polypeptide chain is called the sequential structure of a protein.

F      K     170                 7.     Sickle cell anemia is an infectious disease.

T     K     172                 8.     Proteins have a quaternary structure when two or more polypeptide chains come together to form the final protein.

T     K     173                 9.     Shaking and the addition of alcohol, salts, or detergents can denature a protein.

T     K     175                 10.  The study of the interaction of nutrition and genetics to influence health is called nutrigenomics.

F      K     174                 11.  A mutation is an alteration of the amino acid sequence of a gene.

F      K     177                 12.  Hydrochloric acid is released from parietal cells of the stomach and is responsible for hydrolyzing the peptide bonds of the protein’s primary structure.

T     K     177                 13.  Inactive forms of enzymes, or proenzymes, are produced in order to protect the body from the protein-digesting abilities of the active enzymes.

F      K     183-184         14.  The body utilizes protein as its primary energy source.

T     K     180                 15.  Amino acids are used to synthesize proteins needed for structure, catalysis, movement, transport, communication, and protection.

F      K     187                 16.  When protein intake exceeds loss, such as during adolescence, a person is in nitrogen balance.

T     K     187,188         17.  There are no Tolerable Upper Intake Levels for amino acids or protein.

F      K     189                 18.  Because of its vital role in regulating the body’s functions, according to the AMDRs, protein should provide at least 40% of an individual’s energy intake.

F      K     192                 19.  Lactovegetarians consume dairy products, eggs, fruits, and vegetables, as well as other plant-based foods.

T     K     194                 20.  Most adults with PEM have symptoms associated with marasmus.

F      K     193                 21.  Marasmus is a form of PEM characterized by extreme wasting of muscle and adipose tissue, as well as edema in the hands and feet.

F      K     194                 22.  For most healthy individuals, excessive protein intake can eventually injure the kidneys, resulting in severe health complications.

F      A     192                 23.  While a well-balanced vegetarian diet can supply adequate amounts of amino acids, some micronutrients, including calcium, iron, and vitamin C, can be difficult to consume in adequate amounts, increasing risk for deficiency.





  1. What is the difference between essential, nonessential, and conditionally essential amino acids?

Answer (key points): Amino acids can be categorized as essential, nonessential, or conditionally essential depending on whether we need to consume them from the foods we eat. The 9 essential amino acids are those you must consume in your diet because your body cannot make them or cannot make them in required amounts. The remaining 11 amino acids are nutritionally nonessential because your body can make them from other compounds such as the essential amino acids or glucose. However, if conditions exist that prevent the body from synthesizing a nonessential amino acid in the required amounts, that amino acid becomes conditionally essential and must be obtained from the diet. (pp. 163-165)


  1. How does the body synthesize a nonessential amino acid?

Answer (key points): The body transfers an amino group from one amino acid to another compound called an alpha-keto acid, which is basically an amino acid without its amino group. This process, called transamination, results in the synthesis of a new amino acid. (p. 164)


  1. Why are legumes better sources of protein than most other plants?

Answer (key points): Plants that produce legumes are unique in that their roots are associated with bacteria that can take nitrogen from the air and incorporate it into amino acids. These amino acids are then used by the associated plant. This is why legumes tend to be better sources of protein than most other plants. (p. 165)


  1. How is the quality of a food protein determined?

Answer (key points): Several factors determine whether food proteins are good sources of essential amino acids to your body. These include whether the protein is complete or incomplete in its pattern of amino acids, and your body’s ability to digest and absorb them (i.e., its bioavailability). A protein that provides easily digested and absorbed amino acids has high bioavailability. If a food is a complete protein source and its protein is bioavailable, it is a high-quality protein source. In general, animal-derived foods are sources of high-quality protein, and foods containing incomplete proteins and/or those in which the protein has low bioavailability are low-quality protein sources. (p. 166)


  1. What is a GMO and how is it accomplished?

Answer (key points): A GMO is a genetically-modified organism and can be either a plant or animal. Genetic modification involves manipulating the genetic material of an organism to “force” it to produce different or altered proteins. Sometimes this is done by simply modifying the DNA that the organism has. Alterations in the genetic material (DNA) can influence the proteins a plant makes and ultimately affect the protein quality of foods that we make from the plant. Sometimes, DNA from another organism is inserted in the nucleus. In this way, a plant with one or more limiting amino acids can be “enriched” with those amino acids and, as a result, be transformed into a complete protein source. (p. 167)


  1. The making of protein from 20 amino acids was compared in the chapter to the use of the English alphabet (26 letters) to make words and speak the English language. Why was this such a fitting analogy?

Answer (key points): The English alphabet has 26 letters from which an astonishing variety of words can be made. Some words are short, some are long. Some words contain just a few different letters, others contain many different letters. The same holds true for proteins made from the 20 amino acids found in the human body; some are short, some are long, and some contain a handful of different amino acids, whereas others may contain all 20 amino acids. (pp. 169)


  1. Why is the level of mercury in fish an important health and nutrition issue?

Answer (key points): Mercury is a protein denaturing agent. It can disrupt disulfide bonds and thus the tertiary structure of proteins. High levels of mercury exposure can cause numbness, hearing loss, visual problems, difficulty walking, and severe emotional and cognitive difficulties. The potential for damage due to exposure to mercury is highest for growing fetuses and young children. (p. 173-174)


  1. What is the potential nutrition benefit of each of us being able to inexpensively and non-invasively find out our personal genetic make-up?

Answer (key points): Once we knew our personal genetic make-up, we could have dietary recommendations about specific amounts of foods, nutrients, supplements, and exercise to best help us prevent illness. For example, if your genes suggest that your risk for heart disease is high, your list of recommendations would likely stress a diet low in saturated fat, trans fatty acids, and sodium but high in other, cardio-protective foods. Alternatively, if you were found to be at very low risk for cardiovascular disease, you may not have to be as concerned about these nutrients. In other words, you would receive a personalized dietary prescription. (p. 176)


  1. What are the steps in the digestion of protein?

Answer (key points): (pp. 176-178)

  1. A small amount of mechanical digestion of food protein occurs as you chew your food.
  2. The presence of food in your stomach causes some gastric cells to release a hormone called gastrin.
  3. Gastrin then enters the blood where it triggers the release of hydrochloric acid (HCl), pepsinogen, mucus, and substances from other stomach cells that make up the gastric pits.
  4. HCl disrupts the chemical bonds responsible for the protein’s secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure. (This denaturation process straightens out the complex protein structure so that the peptide bonds can be more completely exposed to the digestive enzymes present in the stomach and small intestine.)
  5. HCl converts pepsinogen into its active form, called pepsin.
  6. Pepsin hydrolyzes or breaks the peptide bonds between amino acids, resulting in shorter polypeptides and some free amino acids.
  7. In the small intestine amino acids and smaller polypeptides coming from the stomach stimulate the release of the hormones secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK) from intestinal cells into the blood.
  8. Secretin and CCK signal the pancreas to release bicarbonate into the lumen of the duodenum, neutralizing the acid from the stomach and inactivating pepsin. These hormones also cause the release of trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, proelastase, and procarboxypeptidase, all of which are proenzymes made in the pancreas.
  9. These inactive proenzymes are converted in the small intestine to their active protease forms: trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, and carboxypeptidase.
  10. Each of these enzymes then recognizes specific amino acids in polypeptide chains, breaking the peptide bonds holding them together and forming tripeptides, dipeptides, and free amino acids. Finally, the di- and tripeptides are further broken down by a multitude of enzymes produced in the brush border enterocytes.


  1. List five categories of the functions of proteins in humans.

Answer (key points): (pp. 180-185)

  1. Facilitating the communication among tissues and organs
  2. Protecting the body from physical danger and infection
  3. Regulating how fluids are distributed in the body
  4. Regulating how acidic or basic the body fluids are
  5. Providing sources of glucose and energy
  6. Regulating protein breakdown
  7. Participating in cell signaling
  8. Serving as messengers in the nervous system
  9. Stimulating or inhibiting the activity of enzymes
  10. Providing nitrogen for the synthesis of DNA and RNA


  1. Why would you expect children suffering from PEM to have difficulty maintaining a normal blood pH?

Answer (key points): Proteins are involved in regulation of how acidic or basic body fluids are. One way that blood pH is maintained is through the buffering action of proteins such as hemoglobin. Amino acids can readily accept and donate charged hydrogen ions. When the hydrogen ion concentration in the blood is too high (acidic), negatively charged proteins can bind excess hydrogen ions, restoring the blood to its proper pH. Conversely, proteins can release hydrogen into the blood when the hydrogen concentration is too low (basic). As a result of its reliance on protein buffers, the body can have difficulty maintaining its optimal pH balance during periods of severe protein deficiency. (pp. 183, 193)


  1. Provide five food selection and preparation tips that will help people meet their overall nutrient requirements as well as those for protein.

Answer (key points): (p. 191)

  1. Consume significant amounts of protein from at least 3 different food groups daily.
  2. Choose “reduced fat,” “low fat,” or “fat free” options for selections of high-protein dairy foods.
  3. For snacks, choose reasonable amounts of high-protein items such as nuts and seeds.
  4. When comparing similar foods, choose higher-protein, lower-fat options by comparing Daily Values found on Nutrition Facts labels.
  5. Add slivered almonds or other nuts to steamed vegetables and fresh salads.
  6. Experiment with ethnic cuisines—such as Indian or Mexican—that frequently utilize a variety of “pulses” (legumes) that are great sources of protein, nutrient dense, and low in fat.
  7. To maximize the nutrient density of meat products, trim excess fat prior to cooking.


  1. Why might physical activity, and especially resistance exercise, actually decrease a person’s dietary protein requirements?

Answer (key points): Physical activity may trigger your body to become more efficient in its use of amino acids and proteins, resulting in decreased protein turnover and ultimately a decreased requirement for dietary protein. (p. 190)


  1. If you were providing nutritional guidance to someone who identified himself or herself as a vegetarian, why would it be important to know what type of vegetarian diet the person had chosen?

Answer (key points): Today many “vegetarians” consume dairy products and eggs and are called lacto-ovo-vegetarians. Alternatively, lactovegetarians include dairy products, but not eggs, in their diets. Vegetarians who avoid all animal products are referred to as vegans. In general, a well-balanced lacto-ovo- or lactovegetarian diet can easily provide adequate protein, energy, and micronutrients. Dairy products and eggs are convenient sources of high-quality protein and many vitamins and minerals. However, because meat is often the primary source of bioavailable iron, eliminating it can lead to iron deficiency. Furthermore, vegans may be at increased risk of being deficient in several micronutrients, including calcium, zinc, iron, and vitamin B12. This risk is increased further during pregnancy, lactation, and periods of growth and development such as infancy and adolescence. (pp. 191-192)


  1. What is the difference between kwashiorkor and marasmus?

Answer (key points): Severe PEM encompasses a continuum of malnutrition: at the extremes are two distinct types of severe PEM, and between them conditions that combine features of both.

Marasmus is at one end of the continuum. It results from severe, chronic, overall malnutrition. In marasmus, fat and muscle tissue are depleted, and the skin hangs in loose folds, with the bones clearly visible beneath the skin. Children with marasmus tend at first to be alert and ravenously hungry, although with increasing severity they become apathetic and lose their appetites. Clinicians often say that marasmus represents the body’s survival response to long-term, chronic dietary insufficiency.

Kwashiorkor is the other extreme type of PEM. It is often distinguished from marasmus by the presence of severe edema. While edema sometimes is present in children with marasmus, those with kwashiorkor usually have more extensive edema, which typically starts in the legs but often involves the entire body. Fluid accumulates in the abdominal cavity. Children with kwashiorkor sometimes have large, distended abdomens due to ascites. Because malnourished children often have intestinal parasites, worms sometimes contribute to this abdominal distension as well. Children with kwashiorkor often are apathetic and have cracked and peeling skin, enlarged fatty livers, and sparse unnaturally blond or red hair. Although many characteristics of kwashiorkor were once thought simply to be caused by protein deficiency, this does not appear to be the case. Researchers now believe that many of the signs and symptoms of kwashiorkor are the result of micronutrient deficiencies, for example vitamin A deficiency, in combination with infection or other environmental stressors. (p. 193)



Fill in the Blank


  1. _______________ RNA in the cytoplasm is involved in gene translation, while _______________ RNA is involved in gene transcription.
    Answer: Transfer, messenger (p. 168-169)
  2. The central carbon of an _______________ is bonded to an amino group, carboxylic acid group, and a side-chain group (R-group).
    Answer: amino acid (p. 163)
  3. The essential amino acid present in the lowest concentration in an incomplete protein source is that food’s _______________.
    Answer: limiting amino acid (p. 165)
  4. Foods considered _______________ contain all the essential amino acids in relative amounts needed by the body, unlike _______________, which contain very low amounts of one or more essential amino acids.
    Answer: complete protein sources, incomplete protein sources (p. 165)
  5. A food that is either an incomplete protein source or one that has low amino acid bioavailability is considered a _______________ protein source, whereas a food that is a complete protein source with adequate amino acid bioavailability is rated as a _______________ protein source.
    Answer: low-quality, high-quality (p. 166)
  6. _______________, organelles associated with the endoplasmic reticulum in the cytoplasm, are involved in gene translation.
    Answer: Ribosomes (p. 169)
  7. A _______________ is a strand of DNA in a cell’s nucleus, whereas the portion of it that codes for the primary structure of a polypeptide is a _______________.
    Answer: chromosome, gene (p. 168)
  8. The product (plant or animal) of genetic engineering is called a _______________.
    Answer: genetically modified organism (p. 167)
  9. A_______________ is a nitrogen-containing macronutrient made from amino acids.
    Answer: protein (p. 163)
  10. During the process of _______________, amino acids are linked together via peptide bonds on ribosomes, using mRNA and tRNA.
    Answer: translation (pp. 169)
  11. Protein synthesis is “turned off” via _______________ and “turned on” via _______________.
    Answer: down-regulation, up-regulation (p. 167)
  12. Vegans can take advantage of _______________ to obtain all essential amino acids in relatively adequate amounts.
    Answer: protein complementation (pp. 166)
  13. The alteration of a gene is a _______________.
    Answer: mutation (p. 174)
  14. _______________ is the process by which mRNA is made using DNA as a template.
    Answer: Transcription (pp. 168)
  15. The particular DNA contained in a person’s cells is his or her _______________.
    Answer: genetic makeup or genotype (p. 174)
  16. The science of how genetics and nutrition together influence health is called _______________.
    Answer: nutrigenomics (p. 175)
  17. The use of altered genes to enhance health is known as _______________.
    Answer: gene therapy (p. 171)



Figure Identification


  1. Label the parts of the amino acid.




1.             R-group

2.             Amino group

3.             Central carbon

4.             Carboxylic acid


  1. Identify the compounds in this diagram.




1.     Amino group

2.     Ammonia

3.     Urea


Nutrition Matters 5 – Food Safety


Multiple Choice


Answer, level, page                                                                        Level: K = knowledge, A = application/critical thinking


What Causes Foodborne Illness? (pp. 199-205)


d      K     199                 1.     Foodborne illness has _____ form(s) and _____ cause(s).

  1. one, several
  2. several, one
  3. several, three
  4. many, many


a      A     199                 2.     An example of an infectious agent found in food that could cause foodborne illness would be:

  1. bacteria in potato salad.
  2. nonbacterial toxins in canned beans.
  3. pesticides on salad greens.
  4. glass shards in pickles.


c      A     199                 3.     An example of a foodborne physical hazard would be:

  1. mold on cheese.
  2. a fly in soup.
  3. metal shavings in bean salad.
  4. pesticide on an apple.


b      K     199                 4.     Microorganisms have several genetic strains or types called _____.

  1. genotypes
  2. serotypes
  3. mutants
  4. variants


d      A     200                 5.     Jeff became ill 24 hours after eating contaminated meat sauce while Tiffany, who ate the same sauce, did not become ill for 2 days. Jeff and Tiffany experienced different _____.

  1. variants
  2. toxicity levels
  3. genotypes
  4. incubation periods


c      K     201                 6.     The harmful substances that some pathogenic organisms produce while they are growing in foods are called _____.

  1. innate poisons
  2. inherent toxins
  3. preformed toxins
  4. intrinsic poisons


c      K     205                 7.     Although not living organisms, _____ are altered proteins created when the secondary structure of the normal protein is disrupted.

  1. amines
  2. peptides
  3. prions
  4. priamines


a      K     201                 8.     What organism is commonly found in raw or undercooked poultry, cream-filled pastries, and unpasteurized milk?

  1. Staphlococcus aureus
  2. Clostridium botulinum
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. Shigella


c      K     201                 9.     Some organisms such as _____ produce toxic substances that cause serious and rapid reactions such as nausea, vomiting, and sometimes neurological damage.

  1. Salmonella
  2. Camplybacter jejuni
  3. Staphlococcus aureus
  4. E. coli


b      A     201                 10.  When Steve goes to work out, he is required to wipe down athletic equipment he has used in order to prevent the spread of _____.

  1. E. coli
  2. methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
  3. Camplybacter jejuni
  4. preformed toxins


b      K     202                 11.  Home-canned, _____ foods may put you at risk for botulism if the food was not processed properly.

  1. high-acid
  2. low-acid
  3. low-sugar
  4. high-sugar


c      K     202                 12.  The Aspergillus mold produces a dangerous preformed toxin called _____.

  1. botulism
  2. yeast
  3. aflatoxin
  4. blue-green mold


a      K     202                 13.  Which of these foods are most likely to be contaminated with Aspergillus mold?

  1. Peanuts
  2. Fresh dairy products
  3. Aged cheeses
  4. High-acid canned foods


d      K     202                 14.  _____ are harmful substances produced by organisms after they enter the gastrointestinal tract.

  1. Preformed toxins
  2. Proformed toxins
  3. Aflatoxins
  4. Enteric toxins


d      K     203                 15.  What organism is likely to be found in contaminated water and undercooked meats and seafood?

  1. Salmonella
  2. Camplybacter jejuni
  3. Staphlococcus aureus
  4. E. coli


b      K     203                 16.  Which type of pathogen invades the cells of the intestine and causes bloody diarrhea?

  1. Intestinal invaders
  2. Enterohemorrhagic
  3. Traveler’s diarrhea
  4. Dysentery


a      K     203                 17.  What organism that tends to be found in raw poultry, eggs, beef, unwashed fruit, alfalfa sprouts, and unpasteurized milk is one of the most common causes of foodborne illness in the United States?

  1. Salmonella
  2. Camplybacter jejuni
  3. Staphlococcus aureus
  4. E. coli


b      K     204                 18.  Which type of pathogen must live within or on another organism during part of its life cycle?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Parasites
  3. Fungi
  4. Mold


d      K     204                 19.  Protozoa are considered to be _____.

  1. bacteria
  2. mold
  3. fungi
  4. parasites


c      K     204                 20.  Both worms and protozoa form _____ that contaminate food.

  1. toxins
  2. mold
  3. cysts
  4. parasites


a      K     205                 21.  Which statement is true?

  1. The FDA recommends cooking seafood thoroughly to kill parasites.
  2. All parasites are resistant to cold, even freezing, temperatures.
  3. Anisakis simplex is a single-celled parasite found in swimming pools.
  4. Parasites usually have very short incubation periods.


d      K     204                 22.  A protozoan parasite, Giardia intestinalis, causes diarrhea, abdominal discomfort, and cramping. How soon after exposure do symptoms typically begin?

  1. Within 24 hours
  2. Within 2-3 days
  3. Within 5-7 days
  4. Within 1-2 weeks


b      K     205                 23.  Mad cow disease is caused by _____.

  1. toxins
  2. prions
  3. parasites
  4. bacteria


b      K     205                 24.  Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is of concern because it is _____.

  1. common
  2. deadly
  3. contagious
  4. self-limiting


How Can Noninfectious Substances Cause Foodborne Illness? (pp. 206-208)


a      K     206                 25.  Which of the following is true?

  1. People get shellfish poisoning when they eat contaminated shellfish or fish.
  2. Some shellfish or fish cause illness by producing a marine toxin in the GI tract of humans.
  3. The marine toxin that contaminates fish or shellfish comes from E. coli.
  4. Contaminated fish or shellfish is easy to spot because of the iridescent color of the toxin.


a      K     206                 26.  Several federal agencies including the USDA, EPA, and _____ are charged with determining whether compounds in foods can be dangerous to consume.

  1. FDA
  2. ADA
  3. AMA
  4. WHO


a      K     207                 27.  “Chinese restaurant syndrome” is a term used to refer to a reaction some people experience after ingesting _____.

  1. monosodium glutamate (MSG)
  2. sulfites
  3. soy
  4. peanut oil


How Do Food Manufacturers Prevent Contamination? (pp. 208-210)


c      K     208                 28.  What is the term for the process in which contaminants are transmitted from food to food?

  1. Flow of food
  2. Foodborne illness
  3. Cross-contamination
  4. Foodborne outbreak


b      K     209                 29.  What does the acronym HACCP stand for?

  1. Hazard Analysis Crisis Control Program
  2. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points
  3. Hazard Assessment Crisis Control Program
  4. Hazard Assessment Critical Control Points


d      K     208-209         30.  The goal of _____ is to produce a product that is as pathogen free as possible and then to store it in a way that does not allow pathogenic growth.

  1. Fight Bac!
  2. the WHO
  3. the CDC
  4. HACCP


d      K     209                 31.  Which preservation method is represented by the following foods: sauerkraut, yogurt, and wine?

  1. Canning
  2. Cooking
  3. Pasteurization
  4. Fermentation


a      K     209                 32.  A food that has been held consistently at a temperature of 35°F is more likely to be safe to eat than one held at 45°F because the lower temperature _____.

  1. inhibits microbial growth
  2. prevents the growth of harmful bacteria
  3. sterilizes the food
  4. destroys harmful bacteria


c      A     209                 33.  Wines are typically safe to drink because _____.

  1. the alcohol kills pathogenic organisms
  2. the fruit juice is sterilized prior to fermentation
  3. growth of nonpathogenic organisms minimizes growth of pathogenic ones
  4. wine is irradiated


d      K     210                 34.  Which of the following is a common means of destroying the microorganisms that could be found in spices?

  1. Fermentation
  2. Cooking
  3. Drying
  4. Pasteurization


c      K     209                 35.  The “danger zone” —the environmental temperature range that most foodborne pathogens prefer to live in—is between _____ degrees Fahrenheit.

  1. 30 and 130
  2. 35 and 135
  3. 40 and 140
  4. 45 and 145


a      K     210                 36.  In 1963, the FDA approved a form of food processing called _____, sometimes referred to as “cold pasteurization.”

  1. irradiation
  2. aseptic packaging
  3. IQF (individually quick frozen)
  4. blast chilling


c      K     210                 37.  The FDA has approved the irradiation of meat, poultry, shellfish, eggs, fresh fruits, vegetables, and _____.

  1. cheese
  2. milk
  3. spices
  4. breakfast cereals


What Steps Can You Take to Reduce Foodborne Illness? (pp. 210-212)


a      K     211                 38.  What is the set of food safety guidelines developed by the USDA and the Partnership for Food Safety Education called?

  1. Fight BAC!
  2. Safe Food America
  3. Safe Food Rules!
  4. Join the Food Safety Fight

b      K     211-212         39.  The USDA and the Partnership for Food Safety Education’s set of food safety guidelines emphasizes four main guidelines: clean, separate, cook, and

  1. store.
  2. chill.
  3. keep hot.
  4. disinfect.


b      K     211                 40.  For hand washing to be effective, hands should be washed vigorously with soap for at least _____ seconds and then rinsed thoroughly under clean, warm running water.

  1. 10
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 60


a      K     211                 41.  Fresh fruits and vegetables but not meat should be  _____ just before cooking to prevent foodborne illness.

  1. washed
  2. blanched
  3. chilled
  4. trimmed


d      A     211                 42.  How can you be sure that a hamburger is safe to eat?

  1. Freeze all ground meat before cooking it.
  2. Save the marinade used to season the raw meat to use as a sauce.
  3. Let it cool at room temperature after cooking, then reheat before eating.
  4. Determine it is thoroughly cooked by measuring its internal temperature.


a      K     212                 43.  Although everyone is at risk for getting foodborne illness, certain people such as infants, the elderly, and _____ are more susceptible than others.

  1. pregnant women
  2. athletes
  3. teenagers
  4. adult males


c      K     212                 44.  In the late 1990s, consumption of contaminated luncheon meat that contained _____ resulted in the deaths of 6 people and two miscarriages.

  1. Salmonella
  2. Shigella
  3. Listeria monocytogenes
  4. E. coli


c      K     212                 45.  Which of the following is a safe way to thaw frozen foods?

  1. In a warm (80°F) oven
  2. In a bowl of hot water
  3. In the refrigerator
  4. On the counter in a paper bag


What About Avoiding Foodborne Illness While Traveling or Camping? (pp. 212-213)


c      A     212-213         46.  José will soon be traveling to several foreign countries. To decrease his chances of contracting a foodborne illness, he should avoid drinking water from the local source and eating _____.

  1. cooked beef
  2. bread
  3. grapes
  4. grilled chicken

What Are Some Emerging Issues of Food Biosecurity? (pp. 213)


a      K     213                 47.  Which term refers to the prevention of terrorist attacks on our food supply?

  1. Food biosecurity
  2. Food security
  3. Food anti-terrorism
  4. Bioterrorism preparedness




Answer, level, page


F      K     199                 1.     All microbes in food are harmful.

T     K     201                 2.     It now appears that community-acquired infection can occur via consumption of MRSA-infected foods.

F      K     201                 3.     Cooking contaminated foods to sufficiently high temperatures will destroy any toxins they contain.

T     K     202                 4.     Noroviruses are examples of pathogens that produce enteric toxins.

F      K     203                 5.     The noroviruses can be successfully treated with antibiotics if the medication is given at the onset of symptoms.

T     K     205                 6.     Freezing kills many parasites.

F      K     205                 7.     Prions are deformed proteins that are destroyed by cooking.

T     K     206                 8.     The production of brevetoxins by algae is an example of shellfish poisoning.

F      K     207                 9.     The USDA requires food manufacturers to label all foods containing sulfites in concentrations of at least 100 parts per million.

T     K     207                 10.  Because a substantial amount of research indicates that bST is safe for human consumption, the FDA allows its use.

F      K     207                 11.  MSG may be added to foods without listing it on the label.

T     K     208                 12.  You can reduce your exposure to BPA by using glass containers rather than polycarbonate ones, not putting plastics in the microwave, and washing plastic containers by hand instead of in the dishwasher.

T     A     208,211         13.  If you put cooked chicken on the same plate that you used for the raw chicken you will cross-contaminate it.

T     K     209                 14.  Foods can be preserved by drying, salting, smoking, fermentation, heating, freezing, and irradiation.

T     K     210                 15.  It is not necessary to pasteurize fruit juices in order to sell them.

F      K     210                 16.  Because irradiated foods are safe, foods that have been irradiated are not labeled in any special way.

T     K     211                 17.  The USDA recommends that you do not wash raw meat, poultry, and fish because you may increase the danger of cross-contamination.

F      K     212                 18.  The risk of foodborne illness is the same for individuals with cancer as it is for others in the general population.

F      K     212                 19.  It is safe to thaw frozen foods at room temperature.

T     K     213                 20.  Milk and milk products from cows are not believed to pose any risk for transmitting BSE to consumers.




  1. Give 4 examples of infectious and noninfectious agents that can cause foodborne illnesses.

Answer (key points): (p. 199)

Infectious agents Noninfectious agents







heavy metals





glass/metal/plastic fragments


  1. Why doesn’t cooking food render it incapable of causing foodborne illness?

Answer (key points): Because many of the toxins produced by some pathogenic organisms and most noninfectious agents are not altered by the cooking process. (pp. 201, 205)


  1. What are two reasons why is it often difficult to pinpoint the cause of a foodborne illness?

Answer (key points): (pp. 200, 212)

a.)   Because incubation times are often longer than several hours, people may have ingested a number of different foods from a number of different sources during that period, making it difficult to identify the offending food(s).

b.)   Because people may be more (or less) susceptible to an infectious or noninfectious agent due to their health status, everyone who ate the offending food may not become ill.

c.)    Some people may eat enough of an offending food to become ill while others may not consume that much.


  1. Why don’t people who get Botox treatments get botulism?

Answer (key points): The amount of botulism used in Botox treatments is too small to cause botulism. (p. 202)


  1. What is the difference between a preformed toxin, an enteric or intestinal toxin, and an enterohemorrhagic pathogen?

Answer (key points): Preformed toxins are produced by organisms living in foods before these foods are consumed, whereas enteric or intestinal toxins are produced by organisms while they are in the GI tract. Enterohemorrhagic pathogens invade the cells of the intestine, seriously irritating the mucosal lining and causing severe abdominal discomfort and bloody diarrhea. (pp. 201, 202, 203)


  1. Why might patrons at self-service buffets be vulnerable to foodborne illnesses caused by a norovirus?

Answer (key points): Since there is no vaccine to prevent infection, virtually everyone is susceptible, and the key is to avoid exposure to these viruses. Norovirus infection can be prevented by following all of the food safety guidelines—such as preventing food service workers who are ill from having any role in food preparation and service; having all of those who come into contact with food wash their hands frequently; sanitizing food preparation and service utensils; cooking foods properly; and holding and serving foods at proper temperatures. Unfortunately, the way food is handled and served in a buffet increases the patrons’ risk. Self-service buffets are susceptible to norovirus contamination from not only food preparers but also from other patrons who may be ill and contaminate the food that others will consume. Particularly risky habits include having hand to mouth contact while serving yourself. This happens if people “taste” foods while serving themselves. Patrons may not have washed their hands before handling serving utensils, which can easily make contact with the yet-to-be-consumed food. (pp. 202-203, 208, 211-212)


  1. Why is it important to boil, chemically treat, or filter water from ponds, streams, and lakes before drinking it?

Answer (key points): Parasites called protozoa form cysts that are excreted in the feces of animals. Any plants, animals, or water sources that come in contact with these cysts will become contaminated too. People and animals that drink contaminated water will likely develop foodborne illness. Boiling, chemically treating, or filtering the water, however, can kill or remove the parasites. (p. 204)


  1. What can you do to protect yourself from foodborne illnesses while enjoying sushi made from fish?

Answer (key points): Since freezing kills many parasites, it may be prudent to choose to consume only sushi that has been made with previously frozen fish. (p. 205)


  1. What are prions, and why are they a consideration in foodborne illness?

Answer (key points): Prions are altered proteins created when the secondary structure of the normal protein is disrupted. These deformed proteins, which are found mainly in the nerves and brain, can cause other normal proteins to unravel, setting off a cascade of similar reactions converting hundreds of normal proteins into abnormal prions. Prions are extremely resilient and retain their ability to infect other cells even after exposure to extreme heat or acids. Prions can be absorbed into the bloodstream and begin the process of transforming normal proteins into prions in their new host. For this reason, the FDA has banned the use of innervated tissue (such as the brain and spinal cord) from slaughtered cattle in human food, dietary supplements, and cosmetics. (p. 205)


  1. List several situations where cross-contamination could occur in one’s home environment. How could each be prevented?

Answer (key points): [There are many correct answers for this question. Following are a few examples of situations that pose a cross-contamination risk; see the text section “The FightBAC! Campaign Provides Basic Food Safety Advice” for more on preventing cross-contamination.] (pp. 208, 211)

Opportunity for cross-contamination How to prevent
Dishes used for raw meat, fish, or poultry are reused for cooked foods without being washed first. Always put cooked food on clean dishes.
Raw meat, fish, or poultry is stored on a refrigerator shelf above cooked foods and/or ready-to-eat fruits and vegetables that could be contaminated by liquids dripping from the meat, fish, or poultry. Always store raw meat, fish, and poultry below cooked and ready-to-eat foods. Be sure that they are tightly wrapped.
A person with a cold prepares dinner for others without washing his/her hands properly. Those with infectious diseases should not handle food that will be eaten by others.
A child eats a sandwich without first having washed his or her hands after using the bathroom. Always wash hands thoroughly before handling or eating food.


  1. Why is irradiation used for food preservation, and why is it considered safe?

Answer (key points): Irradiation of foods damages or kills bacteria, making foods safer to eat. Irradiation dramatically increases shelf life. Irradiation neither damages nutrients nor makes the foods radioactive. Irradiated foods must be labeled with the radura symbol. (p. 210)


  1. What are the four main guidelines of the FightBAC! campaign? Give an example of how each guideline could be implemented.

Answer (key points): (pp. 210-212)

  • Clean: Wash hands thoroughly and frequently; clean and sanitize cutting boards, sponges, equipment, dishes, and utensils.
  • Separate: At all times, keep raw meat, seafood, and poultry separate from cooked and ready-to-eat foods.
  • Cook: Cook all foods to the recommended internal temperatures. Maintain these temperatures throughout the serving process.
  • Chill: Always keep perishable foods refrigerated at 40°F or colder. Do not thaw or marinate foods at room temperature. Chill leftovers to 40°F or colder as quickly as possible by dividing the cooked food into smaller amounts.


Fill in the Blank


  1. Severe headaches and nausea reportedly caused by consuming large amounts of monosodium glutamate characterize the condition known as _______________.
    Answer: Chinese restaurant syndrome (p. 207)
  2. _______________ is a fatal disease diagnosed in cattle that have ingested prions.
    Answer: Bovine spongiform encephalopathy or BSE or Mad cow disease (p. 205)
  3. A _______________ is a specific strain of a larger class of organism.
    Answer: serotype (p. 199)
  4. Pet food contamination resulted when U.S. manufacturers utilized gluten that had been intentionally laced with _______________, a nitrogen-containing chemical used to make light-weight plastic objects, by Chinese gluten manufacturers.
    Answer: melamine (p. 207-208)
  5. Either a genetic mutation or surgical contamination with prions can cause _______________ disease in humans.
    Answer: Creutzfeldt-Jakob (p. 205)
  6. After consuming shellfish that contained marine toxins, Sarah suffered from _______________.
    Answer: shellfish poisoning (p. 206)
  7. ________________ are very small (single-cell) organisms that are sometimes parasites.
    Answer: Protozoa (p. 204)
  8. A _______________ is a disease caused by ingesting unsafe food.
    Answer: foodborne illness (p. 199)
  9. A misshapen protein, or _______________, causes other proteins to also become distorted, damaging nervous tissue.
    Answer: prion (p. 205)
  10. A protozoan in the _______________ stage of its life cycle is excreted in feces and can contaminate foods or water.
    Answer: cyst (p. 204)




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