Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition by Lynn Crespo – Test Bank


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Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 05: Gene Therapy and Emerging Molecular Therapies

Test Bank

Multiple Choice

  1. Which of the following is NOT a potential advantage of gene therapy over traditional pharmacologic therapy?
    1. Gene therapy can replace a mutant gene that results in disease, thereby striking the root of the condition.
    2. Gene therapy can result in continuous production of a therapeutic protein with a short t1/2 that would otherwise require frequent dosing.
    3. Gene therapy in Phase 4 studies has been proven safer and more efficacious than analogous drug treatments.
    4. Gene therapy can be targeted to a specific site or cell type to avoid potentially toxic systemic therapy.
    5. Gene therapy can improve patient compliance dramatically, since it does not rely on daily adherence to a treatment.




  1. Choose the true statement regarding gene transfer mechanisms.
    1. Plasmid DNA transfer has the advantage of being highly efficient.
    2. Retrovirus transfer is optimal when the target cell is undergoing division.
    3. The high rate of protein uptake makes liposomal transfer mechanisms less desirable.
    4. Adenovirus transfer typically has effects lasting 3 years or longer.
    5. Herpes simplex viruses are clinically used to transfer DNA to reproductive organs.







Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 22: Antiarrhythmic Drugs

Test Bank

Multiple Choice


  1. The mechanism of action of class III antiarrhythmic drugs is:
  2. Sodium channel blocker
  3. Potassium channel blocker
  4. Beta adrenergic blocker
  5. Calcium channel blocker
  6. Local anesthetic action


ANS: B. The electrophysiologic action of class III antiarrhythmics includes the blockade of one or more of the three types of potassium channels involved in phase 3 of the action potential of myocardial cells.


  1. The action potential of a myocardial pacemaker cell differs from that of the non-pacemaker cell in that:


  1. The resting membrane potential is more negative in the pacemaker cells.
  2. The depolarization is faster in the pacemaker cell.
  3. Ca++ channels do not play a significant role in the pacemaker cell action potentials.
  4. Potassium channels conductance is primary for initiation of the action potential in pacemaker cells.
  5. The pacemaker cell action potential depolarization is initiated by the influx of calcium.


ANS: E. The myocardial pacemaker cell’s sodium channels are inactivated. Calcium influx is the initiator of the depolarization that results in a slow, more prolonged action potential.


  1. The class III drug amiodarone:


  1. Delays influx of sodium into the myocyte
  2. Blocks several potassium channels, prolonging the action potential
  3. Delays influx of calcium into the myocyte
  4. Has beta adrenergic receptor blockade properties
  5. All of the above are correct


ANS: E. Amiodarone has an extremely complex and incompletely understood spectrum of actions. It blocks several K+ channels. It blocks both Na+ and Ca++ channels (class I and IV effects) and is a noncompetitive β receptor antagonist (class II effect).





Wecker: Brody’s Human Pharmacology, 5th Edition

Chapter 39: Adrenocorticosteroids

Test Bank

Multiple Choice


  1. The chronic use of exogenous selective glucocorticoids leads to all of the following adverse effects except:


  1. Increased gastric acid output
  2. Increase in insulin resistance
  3. Inhibition of osteoblastic activity
  4. Metabolic alkalosis and mild hypernatremia
  5. HPA axis suppression


ANS: D. Metabolic alkalosis and mild hypernatremia are adverse effects of excess mineralocorticoids, not glucocorticoids.


  1. The drug of choice for primary mineralocorticoid insufficiency is:


  1. Fludrocortisone
  2. Betamethasone
  3. Fluticasone
  4. Vasopressin
  5. Lixivaptan


ANS: A. For the treatment of primary mineralocorticoid insufficiency, the drug of choice is fludrocortisone.

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