Biotechnology 2nd Edition by David P. Clark – Test Bank

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Clark: Biotechnology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 5: RNA-Based Technologies

 

 

  1. Antisense RNA is a
  2. RNA that can be found in the ribosome that can carry out catalysis.

*b. RNA with sequence complementary to an mRNA, this RNA will prevent translation.

  1. Small non-coding RNA molecules that modulate gene expression
  2. Small non-coding RNA that identifies an mRNA and triggers degradation

 

  1. Short-interfering RNA (siRNA) are
  2. RNAs that can be found in the ribosome that can carry out catalysis.
  3. RNAs with sequence complementary to an mRNA, this RNA will prevent translation.
  4. Small non-coding RNA molecules that modulate gene expression

*d. Small non-coding RNAs that identify an mRNA and trigger its degradation

 

  1. MicroRNAs are
  2. RNAs that can be found in the ribosome that can carry out catalysis.
  3. RNAs with sequence complementary to an mRNA, this RNA will prevent translation.

*c. Small non-coding RNA molecules that modulate gene expression

  1. Small non-coding RNAs that identify an mRNA and trigger its degradation

 

  1. Ribozymes are

*a. RNAs that can be found in the ribosome that can carry out catalysis.

  1. RNAs with sequence complementary to an mRNA, this RNA will prevent translation.
  2. Small non-coding RNA molecules that modulate gene expression
  3. Small non-coding RNAs that identify an mRNA and trigger its degradation

 

  1. RNAI and RNAII are sense and antisense partners controlling this process.
  2. Control of HIV gene expression
  3. Developmental control of nFGF

*c. Control of ColE1 replication

  1. Control of Neurospora circadian rhythm
  2. Control of X-chromosome inactivation

 

  1. Antisense mRNA binds to cellular mRNA during development of Xenopus laevis and degrades the message.
  2. Control of HIV gene expression

*b. Developmental control of nFGF

  1. Control of ColE1 replication
  2. Control of Neurospora circadian rhythm
  3. Control of X-chromosome inactivation

 

  1. Involves the use of xist
  2. Control of HIV gene expression
  3. Developmental control of nFGF
  4. Control of ColE1 replication
  5. Control of Neurospora circadian rhythm

*e. Control of X-chromosome inactivation

 

  1. Antisense env mRNA binds to the Rev response element, blocking production of protein.

*a. Control of HIV gene expression

  1. Developmental control of nFGF
  2. Control of ColE1 replication
  3. Control of Neurospora circadian rhythm
  4. Control of X-chromosome inactivation

 

  1. Regulated by antisense and sense mRNA for the frq
  2. Control of HIV gene expression
  3. Developmental control of nFGF
  4. Control of ColE1 replication

*d. Control of Neurospora circadian rhythm

  1. Control of X-chromosome inactivation
  2. Regulated by antisense and sense mRNA for the frq gene.

 

  1. Antisense oligonucleotides may alter aberrant splicing. Which two of the following are examples of human diseases and the gene involved with aberrant splicing.
  2. The env mRNA in HIV and the antisense oligonucleotides for splice site in beta-globin gene.

*b. The antisense oligonucleotide for Bcl-x splice sites in cancer and the antisense oligonucleotides for splice site in beta-globin gene.

  1. The antisense oligonucleotide for Bcl-x splice sites in cancer and the antisense oligonucleotide for the env MRNA in HIV.
  2. None of the above.

 

  1. Major challenges to studying the use of antisense technology in the lab include all of the following EXCEPT:
  2. Nonspecific interactions with other molecules in the cells.

*b. The sensitivity to of dsRNA to RNase H.

  1. Targeting regions of mRNA that may fold back on themselves.
  2. The decision to synthesize the oligonucleotides chemically or to clone antisense genes.

 

  1. Which of the following delivery methods are used to deliver antisense RNA to cells:
  2. Liposomes
  3. Cationic polymers
  4. Streptolysin
  5. Scrape loading

*e. All of the above

  1. Fill-in: With RNA interference (RNAi), ______ triggers _______ to degrade the mRNA into short interfering RNA or siRNA.
  2. siRNA, dicer
  3. antisense RNA, slicer

*c. dsRNA, dicer

  1. miRNA, drosha

 

  1. RNAi has been observed in many organisms and given many names prior to the elucidation of the mechanism. Which of the following terms has NOT been a name for RNAi?
  2. Quelling.

*b. Attenuation.

  1. Posttranscriptional Gene Silencing.
  2. Transcriptional Gene Silencing.
  3. All of the above ARE names for RNAi.

 

  1. MicroRNAs (miRNAs) are small RNAs that modulate gene expression by
  2. Cutting stem loops.
  3. Binding to target RNA and blocking translation.
  4. Blocking to the 3’UTR.
  5. All of the above.

*e. Some of the above.

 

  1. Methods are developed to deliver dsRNA into cells in order to study gene expression. In elegans, which of the following methods is used.
  2. Feeding them E. coli that is expressing the RNA
  3. Bathing C. elegans in RNA which they then take up into their bodies.
  4. Inject the RNA into the worms.

*d. All of the above work to deliver dsRNA to C. elegans.

  1. Some of the above will work to deliver RNA to C. elegans.

 

  1. Studying RNAi is more problematic in human cell culture than in Drosophila or elegans because:
  2. dsRNA cannot get into the cells
  3. Interferon is produced triggering RNA degradation.
  4. A potent antiviral response is triggered to the dsRNA
  5. All of the above are correct.

*e. Some of the above are correct.

 

  1. Ribozymes have been found to carry out which of the following processes.
  2. Removal of group I introns from other mRNA.
  3. Degrade RNA, especially the 5′ end of pre-tRNA
  4. Participate in the replication of viroids and satellite viruses.

*d. All of the above.

  1. Some of the above.
  2. Antisense combined with an engineered ribozyme would work in which of the following ways.
  3. Antisense RNA regions on the ends of the RNA find the target and then RNAse H cleaves it. The product is degraded by the ribozyme.
  4. Antisense RNA region in the middle of the RNA finds the target and then the ribozymes cleave it.

*c. Antisense RNA regions on the ends of the RNA find the target and then the ribozyme cleaves it.

  1. All of the above are mechanisms for ribozyme and antisense RNA function.
  2. None of the above are mechanisms for Ribozyme and antisense RNA function.

 

  1. Ribozymes can be evolved in vitro and have gained which of the following activities EXCEPT.
  2. Catalyzing ligations.
  3. Adding metal ions.
  4. Carry out nucleophilic attack at phosphoryl, carbonyl, and alkyl halides.
  5. Conversion of deoxyribonucleotides to ribonucleotides.

*e. All of the above are activities that evolved ribozymes have gained.

 

  1. Riboswitches work by alternating between different RNA secondary structures in an mRNA. Which of the following is NOT true of riboswitch examples
  2. Many are found in biosynthetic operons of bacteria

*b. With the thiamine riboswitch, the presence of thiamine is required for the production of mRNA.

  1. There are both attenuator mechanisms affecting transcription and translational mechanisms preventing translation off a full length mRNA
  2. Riboswitches can be affected by temperature (thermal stress).
  3. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Regulation of miRNA abundance in eukaryotes is aided with the help of .
  2. miRNA
  3. snoRNA
  4. gRNA
  5. crRNA

*e. circRNA

 

  1. ________ rescues stalled ribosomes in bacteria.
  2. Xist

*b. tmRNA

  1. piRNA
  2. snoRNA

 

  1. Which of the following RNAs are involved in splicing?
  2. TERC

*b. snRNA

  1. gRNA
  2. miRNA

 

  1. ____________ is responsible for transposon silencing in germ lines.
  2. tmRNA
  3. circRNA
  4. tRNA

*d. piRNA

 

  1. Dyskeratosis congenital results from a deletion in the protein or RNA portion of telomerase. The RNA portion of telomerase is called and functions                         .
  2. TERT; to shorten the telomeres in aging cells

*b. TERC; as a template to increase the length of telomeres

  1. Xist; to inactive one X chromosome in mammalian females
  2. piRNA; to silence transposons in germ line cells
  3. lncRNA; to maintain genome stability

 

  1. All of the following statements about the CRISPR system is true except .
  2. The CRISPR system is not found in eukaryotes.
  3. CRISPR protects against viruses having either RNA or DNA genomes, hostile plasmids, and transposons.
  4. CRISPR is based upon memory of short sequences of nucleic acid that are stored on the bacterial chromosome.

*d. CRISPR targets specific sequences on double-stranded RNA.

  1. Stored sequences within the bacterial genome are transcribed and processed into crRNA that are then used by CAS nucleases as guides to seek and destroy foreign nucleic acid.

 

  1. Concerning PTEN expression, which non-coding RNA functions to convert the PTEN genome region into heterochromatin to prevent transcription?

*a. PTENpg1 antisense ?

  1. PTENpg1 antisense ?
  2. PTENpg1 sense
  3. DNMT3A
  4. EZH2

 

 

 

Clark: Biotechnology, 2nd Edition

 

Chapter 17: Inherit Defects and Gene Therapy

 

 

  1. Fragile X Syndrome is a
    1. Genetically dominant form of dystrophy found in about 1 in 10,000.
    2. Defective ion transporter that affects mucous secretions in lungs.

*c. Sex-linked form of mental retardation.

  1. Giant gene is responsible, and results in disintegration of muscle tissue.

 

  1. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy is a
    1. Genetically dominant form of dystrophy found in about 1 in 10,000.
    2. Defective ion transporter that affects mucous secretions in lungs.
    3. Sex-linked form of mental retardation.

*d. Giant gene is responsible, and results in disintegration of muscle tissue.

 

  1. Myotonic dystrophy is a

*a. Genetically dominant form of dystrophy found in about 1 in 10,000.

  1. Defective ion transporter that affects mucous secretions in lungs.
  2. Sex-linked form of mental retardation.
  3. Giant gene is responsible, and results in disintegration of muscle tissue.

 

  1. Cystic Fibrosis is a
    1. Genetically dominant form of dystrophy found in about 1 in 10,000.

*b. Defective ion transporter that affects mucous secretions in lungs.

  1. Sex-linked form of mental retardation.
  2. Giant gene is responsible, and results in disintegration of muscle tissue.

 

  1. Hereditary defects because of extra genes include:
    1. Spina bifida.
    2. XXX
    3. Down’s syndrome.

*e. Some of the above.

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning elastin is NOT true?
    1. Elastin protein is needed in humans in high amounts.
    2. Elastin is encoded by the ELN locus on chromosome 7

*c. Elastin is found in skin, lung, but not blood vessels.

  1. Congenital supravalvular aortic stenosis (SVAS) is associated with defects in the ELN gene.

 

  1. With respect to dominant mutations, which of the following statement are NOT true?
    1. Gain-of-function mutations may lead to dominant phenotypes.
    2. Achrondroplasia, short-limbed dwarfism, is an example of gain-of-function mutation giving a dominant phenotype.
    3. Proteins that form oligomers are subject to dominant negative phenotypes.

*d. Dominant mutations are very common and are especially associated with cancer.

 

  1. Which of the following statements with respect to repeats of the sequence CAG are NOT true?
    1. Below a certain number of repeats, there is no problem.

*b. CAG repeats are associated with polyglutamic acid tracts in proteins.

  1. These CAG repeats are associated with autosomal dominant diseases.
  2. These defects can bring about significant changes in the protein structure.

 

  1. Which of the following statements regarding gain of function because of tandem repeats is true?
    1. An example is myotonic dystrophy.
    2. The repeat is a CTG repeat that forms a CUG hairpin in the message.
    3. The gain of function is at the level of the mRNA.
    4. This defect is seen in mice.

*e. All of the above are true.

 

  1. Which of the following statements concerning genetic imprinting is true?
    1. Genetic imprinting develops after the blastocyst stage.
    2. Imprinting brings about changes in the DNA sequence.
    3. Imprinting is the same regardless of whether the gene was maternal or paternal.

*d. Imprinting is caused by the methylation of DNA.

 

  1. Which of the following describe Prader-Willi syndrome?
    1. About 75% of the cases are caused by deletions
    2. It develops when the paternal copy of the gene is deleted and the maternal copy is methylated
    3. It develops when the maternal copy is defective and the paternal copy is methylated
    4. It is associated with mental retardation and gross obesity
    5. None of the above are correct

*f. Some of the above are correct

 

  1. Which of the following describe Angelman’s syndrome?
    1. About 75% of the cases are caused by deletions
    2. It develops when the paternal copy of the gene is deleted and the maternal copy is methylated
    3. It develops when the maternal copy is defective and the paternal copy is methylated

*d. A and C are correct

  1. A and B are correct
  2. None of the above are correct

 

  1. All of the following contribute to mitochondrial defects EXCEPT
    1. Oxidative damage to DNA is higher because of respiration by mitochondria.
    2. There are fewer DNA repair systems in mitochondria.
    3. Mitochondrial DNA has a higher mutation rate.

*d. All of the mitochondria in an animal come from the father.

  1. Mitochondria divide faster and the DNA is not protected by histones.

 

  1. Which of the following statements about cystic fibrosis are true?
    1. Caused by a gene located on chromosome 8.
    2. Is an autosomal dominant disease.
    3. Involves a Na+ channel that affects mucous.

*d. Heterozygotes are more resistant to typhoid and cholera.

 

  1. Reliable tests for phenylketonuria result in
    1. Detecting the disease, which is caused by lack of phenylalanine hydroxylase.
    2. Avoiding the consequences, which include muscle fatigue and weakness.
    3. Use of a diet that is very low in tyrosine.

*d. Prospective parents deciding not to have children.

 

  1. Which of the following describes the difference between genetic engineering and gene therapy?
    1. Genetic engineering can only be performed on single cell organisms but gene therapy can be performed on all organisms.
    2. Genetic engineering is regulated by the government but gene therapy isn’t.

*c. Gene therapy alters genes in only the affected part of the body, but genetic engineering has its basis in the germline cells and thus, is permanent.

  1. Gene therapy is used in eugenics, but genetic engineering is not.

 

  1. Factors considered when designing replacement gene therapy include all of the following EXCEPT:
    1. Method of delivery to the patient.
    2. Choice of vector.
    3. Cloning of the gene.
    4. Dominance versus recessiveness of genes.

*e. Stem cell lines used in the process.

 

  1. The goal behind aggressive gene therapy is to
    1. Provide genes cloned from other organisms that may function better at fixing the problem.

*b. Provide genes that may cure a disease even though the gene is not the cause of the disease.

  1. Provide genes that suppress the affects of cancer and make the patient feel better.
  2. Provide genes that encode pathways for the production of morphine, to make the patient feel better.

 

  1. Factors to consider when choosing viral vectors for gene therapy include all of the following EXCEPT:
    1. How infectious and what type of symptoms might be caused by the virus.
    2. How easy the virus is to grow in culture.
    3. How well the genetics and biochemistry of the virus are understood.

*d. The availability of vaccines for the virus.

  1. The oncogenicity of the virus.

 

  1. Disadvantages in the use of adenovirus to treat a disease such as cystic fibrosis with gene therapy include

*a. Adenovirus infections are short-lived and thus so are the effect of gene therapy.

  1. Adenovirus must be injected directly to the affected tissue.
  2. Adenovirus only infects germline cells, which is not the goal of gene therapy.
  3. All of the above are disadvantages.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of adenovirus-associated virus for gene therapy?
    1. It integrates into one single site in humans, which allows permanent integration into the genome.
    2. It does not provoke antibody formation.

*c. It produces a strong inflammation process, so you know that it is working.

  1. It can enter nondividing cells of many tissues.
  2. It infects a wide range of animals so it can be cultured in other animal cells.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a genetic element required for normal retrovirus function?
    1. Gag

*b. Ori of replication

  1. Pol
  2. Env
  3. LTR

 

  1. Advantages of using retroviral vectors include
    1. They infect many types of cells in mammals.
    2. They can be integrated into host cell DNA, bringing the therapeutic gene with them.
    3. The vectors are devoid of genes for retroviruses, thus there is no immune response.

*d. All of the above are advantages.

  1. Some of the above are advantages.

 

  1. Which of the following has NOT been a therapy for severe combined immunodeficiencies
    1. Treating blood stem cells with gene therapy and returning them to the body.
    2. Keeping the patients inside a plastic bubble.
    3. Treating bone marrow cells with gene therapy then returning to the body.

*d. Treating patients with interleukin 7.

  1. Treating with adenosine deaminase.

 

  1. Which of the following is NOT a non-viral method for delivering gene therapy?
    1. Receptor-mediated uptake.
    2. Liposomes
    3. Transformation with naked DNA.

*d. Conjugation.

  1. Particle bombardment.

 

  1. Disadvantages of using liposomes for gene therapy of cancer cells include:
    1. Toxic proteins such as tumor necrosis factor can be packaged.
    2. Liposomes can be directly injected into tumor tissue.

*c. Liposomes will fuse with any cell, regardless of whether it is the target.

  1. There are no disadvantages to using liposomes.

 

  1. Which of the following statement concerning aptamers is NOT true?
    1. Aptamers are oligonucleotides that can bind to and inhibit proteins.

*b. It would be impossible to receive FDA approval for this kind of therapy.

  1. The usefulness of aptamers has been demonstrated using thrombin.
  2. All of the above.
  3. Some of the above.

 

  1. With respect to ribozymes, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
    1. A vector encoding a ribozyme could be used to deliver to target cells.

*b. Deoxyribozymes have no function whatsoever.

  1. Ribozymes have catalytic domains and recognition sequence domains.
  2. Targets for this technology include cancer and infectious disease.

 

  1. Which statement is incorrect?
    1. RNAi is under investigation as a technology to treat age-related macular degeneration.
    2. CRISPR system uses guide RNAs and Cas nuclease to destroy foreign nucleic acid in bacteria.
    3. Genome editing might include silencing of third chromosomes in trisomic defects.
    4. Gene editing requires the use of engineered nucleases, such as zinc-finger nucleases.

*e. All of the above are correct.

 

 

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