Biochemistry 4th Edition by Donald Voet – Test Bank

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Chapter 5: Nucleic Acids, Gene Expression, and Recombinant DNA Technology

 

Matching

 

A) diploid
B) phosphodiester
C) probe
D) pyrimidine
E) introns
F) cloning
G) transformed
H) exons
I) ampicillin
J) autoradiography
K) chain-terminator
L) purine

 

  1. Cytosine, uracil, and thymine are structural derivatives of ______.

Ans:  D

Section 5-1. Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Nucleotides are linked by a ______ bond.

Ans:  B

Section 5-1. Nucelotides and Nucleic Acids

Difficulty:  Easy

  1. Experiments by Avery and colleagues proved that DNA was the substance that _____ a non-pathogenic pneumococcus strain to a virulent strain.

Ans:  G

Section 5-2. DNA is the Carrier of Genetic Information

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Experiments by Avery and colleagues proved that DNA was the substance that _____ a non-pathogenic pneumococcus strain to a virulent strain.

Ans:  G

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Certain plasmids contain genes for resistance to ______.

Ans:  I

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. After hybridization, the fragment of interest can be detected by ______.

Ans:  J

Section 5-3. Double Helical DNA

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Eukaryotic genes often contain regions that are transcribed and later excised from the RNA, called ______.

Ans:  E

Section 5-4. Gene Expression and Replication: An Overview

Difficulty:  Easy

 

Multiple Choice

  1. What group is attached to the ring in thymine and is not found on uracil?
  2. A) ribose
  3. B) CH3
  4. C) NH3
  5. D) OCH3
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  B

Section 5-1. Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Nucleotides contain phosphate groups bonded to the:
  2. A) C3¢ or C5¢ atoms
  3. B) C3 or C3¢ atoms
  4. C) C5 or N9 atoms
  5. D) C3 or N9 atoms
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  A

Section 5-1. Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. The most common tautomeric form of the purine and pyrimidine bases in nucleic acids is the:
  2. A) enol form
  3. B) imino form
  4. C) keto form
  5. D) ester form
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  C

Section 5-3. Double Helical DNA

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Which of the following DNA sequences is (are) palindromic?
  2. A) AGCT
  3. B) AAGNCTT
  4. C) AGGA
  5. D) A and B
  6. E) A and C

 

Ans:  D

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Difficult

 

  1. In order to perform PCR, the following reagents must be included:
  2. A) DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA Polymerase
  3. B) DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, ddNTPS, DNA Polymerase
  4. C) DNA fragment, one primer, dNTPs, DNA Polymerase, DNA ligase
  5. D) DNA fragment, primers flanking the region of interest, dNTPs, DNA Ligase
  6. E) none of the above

Ans:  A

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

  1. Which of the following statements about PCR is (are) true?
  2. A) Small amounts of DNA can be easily amplified to millions of copies.
  3. B) PCR is used in forensic and clinical diagnosis.
  4. C) PCR reaction products can be used in cloning
  5. D) A and B
  6. E) A, B and C

 

Ans:  E

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Difficult

 

  1. A gene knockout is:
  2. A) a gene that has been inactivated or removed from an organism.
  3. B) a dominant gene that knocks-out expression of other genes.
  4. C) a gene inserted in place of another gene.
  5. D) a particularly attractive gene.
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  A

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

  1. ‘AMP’ refers most directly to:
  2. A) adenosine
  3. B) adenylic acid
  4. C) adenomethyl purine
  5. D) adenine
  6. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  B

Section 5-1. Nucleotides and Nucleic Acid

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

  1. Free nucleotides are almost always associated with ______ in cells.
  2. A) proteins
  3. B) cholesterol
  4. C) Cl counterions
  5. D) fatty acids
  6. E) Mg2+ counterions

 

Answer:  E

Section 5-1. Nucleotides and Nucleic Acid

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. By convention, the sequence of nucleotide residues in a nucleic acid is written ___________ starting with the ____ end.
  2. A) left to right; 3’
  3. B) right to left; 3’
  4. C) left to right; 5’
  5. D) right to left; 3’
  6. E) top to bottom; 3’

 

Answer: C

Section 5-1. Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Chartgraff’s rules for DNA state that:
  2. A) G+C = 39-46% in mammals
  3. B) A=U and G=C
  4. C) the minor groove is shallower than the major groove
  5. D) A=T and G=C
  6. E) the sense strand is a right-handed helix

Answer: D

Section 5-1. Nucleotides and Nucleic Acids

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. In a large part, Francis and Crick’s proposal of a double-helical structure for DNA was based on evidence from:
  2. A) NMR (nuclear magnetic resonance) spectroscopy
  3. B) IR (infrared) spectroscopy
  4. C) atomic force microscopy
  5. D) electron microscopy
  6. E) x-ray crystallography

 

Answer:  E

Section 5-3. Double Helical DNA

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. RNA occurs primarily as single strands, often giving rise to _______ structures.
  2. A) diploid
  3. B) stem-loop
  4. C) parallel
  5. D) tautomeric
  6. E) haploid

 

Answer:  B

Section 5-4. Gene Expression and Replication: An Overview

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Genomic DNA is ______, producing _________.
  2. A) transcribed; mRNA
  3. B) translated; tRNA
  4. C) transcribed; protein
  5. D) translated; protein
  6. E) translated; rRNA

 

Answer:  A

Section 5-4. Gene Expression and Replication: An Overview

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Polynucleotides are cleaved at recognition sites within the strands by:
  2. A) bacteriophages
  3. B) DNA ligase
  4. C) type III restriction endonucleases
  5. D) reverse transcriptase
  6. E) type II restriction endonucleases

 

Answer:  E

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

  1. The production of multiple identical organisms from a single ancestor is called ________.
  2. A) DNA ligation
  3. B) phenotyping
  4. C) cloning
  5. D) transcription
  6. E) sequencing

 

Answer:  C

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Small circular DNA molecules used to carry foreign DNA are called ________.
  2. A) mRNAs
  3. B) bacteriophage
  4. C) clones
  5. D) plasmids
  6. E) nucleotides

 

Answer:  D

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. In molecular cloning, transformed organisms must be identified. One common method for accomplishing this involves the addition of a gene for ________.
  2. A) transcription
  3. B) X-gal
  4. C) exonuclease activity
  5. D) colony migration
  6. E) antibiotic resistance

 

Answer:  E

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

  1. A genomic library
  2. A) is a storehouse of protein structures for a specific organism
  3. B) contains all of an organism’s DNA
  4. C) contains only protein-coding DNA sequences
  5. D) is best constructed from very short DNA fragments
  6. E) is built from mRNA by reverse transcription

 

Answer:  B

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

  1. In situ hybridization often uses radioactively labeled probes. When probing for a gene containing the sequence ‘AGCTAACGGG’ (standard notation), the probe should have a sequence containing
  2. A) just ‘TT’; in order to recognize all related genes
  3. B) ‘TGCCC’, in order to bind selectively to the 3’ end of the gene of interest
  4. C) ‘CCCGTTAGCT’, in order to very selectively bind the target in an antiparallel fashion
  5. D) a gene conferring antibiotic resistance
  6. E) DNA ligase

 

Answer:  C

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

  1. DNA polymerase from Thermus aquaticus is used in PCR because:
  2. A) it is a soluble protein
  3. B) the genes from Thermus aquaticus are readily distinguished from ‘normal’ organisms
  4. C) the enzyme is readily deactivated by heat, effectively halting the reaction
  5. D) it is stable to PCR reaction conditions
  6. E) it is not infectious

 

Answer:  D

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Recombinant DNA technology can be used for
  2. A) constructing mutant proteins
  3. B) the industrial production of useful proteins
  4. C) producing transgenic organisms
  5. D) correcting genetic defects
  6. E) all of the above

 

Answer:  E

Section 5-5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Nucleoside triphosphates are useful for energy transfer in metabolic processes because the triphosphate bonds are relatively ______.
  2. A) stable
  3. B) high energy
  4. C) bio-compatible
  5. D) large
  6. E) low energy

 

Answer:  B

Section 5.4. Gene Expression and Replication: An Overview

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. A new strand of DNA, produced using a given strand of DNA as a template, is :
  2. A) an exact duplicate of the template.
  3. B) a ‘negative’ copy of the template.
  4. C) a palindromic copy of the template.
  5. D) an exact copy of the template but with the 3’ and 5’ ends reversed.
  6. E) none of the above.

 

Answer:  B

Section 5.2. DNA is the Carrier of Genetic Information

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

  1. It is impossible for RNA to store genetic information because:
  2. A) RNA does not base pair and therefore cannot be replicated
  3. B) Enzymes cannot process RNA as genetic information
  4. C) RNA forms complex folded structures
  5. D) RNA is very unstable
  6. E) none of the above; RNA can store genetic information

 

Answer:  E

Section 5.4. Gene Expression and Replication: An Overview

Difficulty:  Difficult

 

  1. Transfer RNA molecules are involved in:
  2. A) transcription
  3. B) translation
  4. C) duplication
  5. D) gene shuffling
  6. E) recombination

 

Answer:  B

Section 5.4. Gene Expression and Replication: An Overview

Difficulty:  Easy

 

  1. Cloning DNA is often necessary in order to sequence it because:
  2. A) Plasmid DNA is a serious biohazard
  3. B) uridine must be replaced by thymidine
  4. C) the resulting antiparallel complementary strand can be readily sequenced
  5. D) it is necessary to produce large amounts of RNA for sequencing to be accurate
  6. E) the small amounts of DNA available from most organisms can not be easily sequenced

 

Answer:  E

Section 5.5. Molecular Cloning

Difficulty:  Moderate

 

 

 

 

Chapter 20: Transport Through Membranes

 

Matching

 

A) porins
B) gap junctions
C) symporter
D) active
E) ion channel
F) secondary active
G) channel-forming
H) carrier
I) passive-mediated
J) uniporter
K) simple diffusion
L) anti-ion transport

 

 

 

  1. ______ ionophores are transporters that bind the substance to be transported on one side of the membrane then diffuse through the membrane and release the substance on the other side.

 

Ans:  H

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. An example of nonmediated transport is ______.

 

Ans:  K

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. The GLUT1 transporter mediates an example of _____ transport.

 

Ans:  I

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. ______ are bacterial proteins consisting of a b barrel with a central aqueous channel.

 

Ans:  A

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. A transporter that moves two substances simultaneously in the same direction is an example of a(n) __________.

 

Ans:  C

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. Gramicidin A is an example of a ______ ionophore.

 

Ans:  G

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. The Ca2+–ATPase mediates an example of ______ transport.

 

Ans:  D

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. The Na+–glucose transport system mediates an example of ______ transport.

 

Ans:  F

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-4. Ion Gradient-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. KscA is an example of a(n) _________.

 

Ans:  E

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-4. Ion Gradient-Driven Active Transport

 

 

Multiple Choice

 

  1. Which of the following compounds would cross the membrane most rapidly by simple diffusion?
  2. A) water
  3. B) acetone
  4. C) hexane
  5. D) acetic acid
  6. E) methanol

 

Ans:  C

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-1. Thermodynamics of Transport

 

 

  1. What type of transport does not require the assistance of a membrane protein?
  2. A) simple diffusion
  3. B) facilitated diffusion
  4. C) passive transport
  5. D) active transport
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  A

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-1. Thermodynamics of Transport

 

 

  1. Which statement does not describe the transport of ions by valinomycin?
  2. A) The transporter is a carrier ionophore.
  3. B) Transport may be active or passive.
  4. C) The transporter is exquisitely specific for K+
  5. D) Transport occurs along a concentration gradient.
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  B

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. Which of the following statements does not describe ion channels?
  2. A) Ion passage through the channel is specific and rapid.
  3. B) Ion channels help maintain osmotic balance.
  4. C) Ion channels maintain sodium and potassium ion concentrations that are greater in the extracellular fluid than in the cytosol.
  5. D) Ion channels are involved in neurotransmission.
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  C

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. Which of the following open in response to an extracellular stimulus such as a neurotransmitter?
  2. A) mechanoselective channels
  3. B) ligand-gated channels
  4. C) signal-gated channels
  5. D) voltage-gated channels
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  B

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-5. Neurotransmission

 

 

  1. Glucose and mannitol are similarly soluble, but glucose is transported through the erythrocyte membrane four times as rapidly as mannitol. What is the most likely explanation?
  2. A) Glucose undergoes simple diffusion more rapidly than mannitol because glucose is less polar.
  3. B) Glucose and mannitol enter the erythrocyte via an ion-gated channel.
  4. C) Glucose and mannitol are transported via a system that distinguishes the two sugars.
  5. D) Glucose flux through the membrane is linear whereas mannitol flux is described by a hyperbolic curve.
  6. E) None of the above

 

Ans:  C

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. Glucose is added to cells and the rate of glucose transport is plotted against glucose concentration. In the presence of the galactose derivative 6-O-benzyl-D-galactose, the curve is shifted to the right. What kind of agent is 6-O-benzyl-D-galactose?
  2. A) activator
  3. B) competitive inhibitor
  4. C) noncompetitive inhibitor
  5. D) inactivator
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  B

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not an example of a passive-mediated transporter?
  2. A) porins
  3. B) ion channels
  4. C) GLUT1
  5. D) lactose permease
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  D

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the (Na+–K+)–ATPase?
  2. A) antiporter
  3. B) secondary active transport
  4. C) transport is coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP
  5. D) transport occurs against a concentration gradient
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  B

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. Which of the transporters listed below differs from the others?
  2. A) (Na+–K+)–ATPase
  3. B) Na+–glucose transporter
  4. C) lactose permease
  5. D) KscA
  6. E) Ca2+–ATPase

 

Ans:  D

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport, 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. When Digitoxin is used for heart failure, the effects do not include:
  2. A) inhibition of phosphate hydrolysis from E2 of the (Na+–K+)–ATPase pump
  3. B) activation of the (Na+–K+)–ATPase pump
  4. C) increase in intracellular Na+ concentration
  5. D) increase in Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  6. E) increase in the strength of the cardiac muscle contraction
  7. F) all of the above

 

Ans:  B

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. Which features allow the KscA channel to selectively transport K+?
  2. A) it has anionic amino acids at the channel entrance
  3. B) the entrance of the channel accommodates a hydrated K+ ion
  4. C) the “selectivity filter” involves a narrowing of the channel, causing K+ to lose its waters of hydration
  5. D) as K+ loses its waters of hydration it begins to interact with protein carbonyls in the channel
  6. E) all of the above

 

Ans:  E

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. Gated ion channels:
  2. A) transport ions rapidly
  3. B) bind specific ions
  4. C) open in response to specific stimuli
  5. D) close in response to specific stimuli
  6. E) all of the above

 

Ans:  E

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-5. Neurotransmission

 

 

  1. Which does not occur when neurons are stimulated?
  2. A) local depolarization results from the opening of Na+ ion channels allowing Na+ to leave the cell
  3. B) neighboring Na+ ion channels open in response to the change in membrane potential, resulting in a wave of depolarization
  4. C) depolarization stimulates the opening of ion-gated K+ channels, resulting in repolarization
  5. D) recovery involves the movement of Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell, resulting in the membrane regaining its resting potential
  6. E) none of the bove

 

Ans:  A

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-5. Neurotransmission

 

 

  1. Vanilomycin:
  2. A) is a cyclic polypeptide
  3. B) contains L-amino acids
  4. C) contains D-amino acids
  5. D) is capable of complexing K+
  6. E) all of the above

 

Ans:  E

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

 

  1. ClC Cl channels:
  2. A) are heterodimers with an hourglass structure.
  3. B) are covered with acidic amino acids on the surface.
  4. C) have a selectivity filter constructed from the N-terminal ends of α-helices, whose dipoles attract Cl
  5. D) have a lysine side chain in the pore that must be moved aside to allow Cl
  6. E) all of the above

 

Ans:  C

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. Which statement about aquaporins is not true?
  2. A) They transport water.
  3. B) They are trimeric proteins that allow 3 water molecules to pass concurrently.
  4. C) They are lined with hydrophobic amino acids
  5. D) They have a narrow constriction that can accommodate only one water molecule at a time.
  6. E) use Arg and His side chains to remove hydrating water molecules from the ‘transported’ H2

 

Ans:  B

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. Which step is not involved in erythrocyte glucose transport by GLUT1?
  2. A) glucose first binds to the transporter on one side of the membrane
  3. B) the initial glucose binding results in a conformational change, opening the binding site on the opposite side of the membrane
  4. C) the glucose is then released and disassociates from the opposite side of the transporter
  5. D) the transporter then reverts to the initial conformation
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  E

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. What is true about the (Na+–K+)–ATPase transporter?
  2. A) three potassium ions bind to the cytostolic face of the transporter in the E1 state
  3. B) GTP binds to it and is hydrolyzed to form GDP and a high energy phosphorylated glutamyl residue
  4. C) formation of the high-energy phosphorylated glutamyl residue triggers a conformational shift from the E1 form to the E2 form
  5. D) bound Na+ ions are released from the E2 state to the extracellular medium, and two potassium ions are bound to the dephosphorylated E2
  6. E) phosphate hydrolysis of the E2 state releases potassium ions to the cytosol and results in rearrangement to the E1 state

 

Ans:  E

Level of Difficulty:  Moderate

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. Ouabain inhibits the (Na+–K+)–ATPase pump, resulting in
  2. A) K+ ions moving into the cell along a concentration gradient
  3. B) K+ ions bringing water molecules into the cell in order to maintain an osmotic balance
  4. C) extra K+ ions and water in cells causing them to swell and lyse
  5. D) an increase the strength of heart muscle contractions when small amounts of Ouabain are used
  6. E) all of the above

 

Ans:  D

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. Lactose permease uses a ___________ gradient to transport lactose across the cell membrane.
  2. A) water
  3. B) potassium
  4. C) chloride
  5. D) proton
  6. E) lactose

 

Ans:  D

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-4. Ion Gradient-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. The Kv channel is transiently closed by ___________.
  2. A) inactivation balls
  3. B) a C-terminal b-sheet
  4. C) proteoglycan residues
  5. D) a selectivity filter
  6. E) tightly-bound Ca2+

 

Ans:  A

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-5. Neurotransmission

 

 

  1. A graph of the rate of glucose transport via the GLUT1 transporter vs. glucose concentration would have a ________ shape.
  2. A) hyperbolic
  3. B) sigmoidal
  4. C) bell
  5. D) linear
  6. E) exponential

 

Ans:  A

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. In the intestinal epithelium, glucose enters the cell in symport with ______, which is subsequently ejected by an ATPase pump.
  2. A) K+
  3. B) GTP
  4. C) Na+
  5. D) ATP
  6. E) Cl

 

Ans:  C

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. The concentration of cytosolic Ca2+ is _________ the extracellular concentration of Ca2+.
  2. A) dependent upon
  3. B) the same as
  4. C) greater than
  5. D) less than
  6. E) linearly related to

 

Ans:  D

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. Drug resistance is frequently traced to:
  2. A) the MDR transporter
  3. B) passive transport
  4. C) sequestration of both Na+ and K+.
  5. D) the evolution of selectivity filters
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  A

Level of Difficulty:  easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. A pore that simultaneously transports two different molecules in different directions is called:
  2. A) a symporter
  3. B) a promiscuous pore
  4. C) a gap junction
  5. D) an equilibrium machine
  6. E) an antiporter

 

Ans:  E

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-3. ATP-Driven Active Transport

 

 

  1. Gap junctions:
  2. A) connect the cytoplasm to the extracellular solution
  3. B) are important intracellular communication channels
  4. C) are important intercellular communication channels
  5. D) primarily transport oxalate and formate
  6. E) none of the above

 

Ans:  C

Level of Difficulty:  Moderate

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

 

  1. The rapid transport of K+ ions by the KscA ion channel moves up to ____ ions per ______.
  2. A) 106; minute
  3. B) 101; second
  4. C) 1023; minute
  5. D) 108; second
  6. E) 108; hour

 

Ans:  D

Level of Difficulty:  Easy

Section: 20-2. Kinetics and Mechanisms of Transport

 

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